A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
"Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
"Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."
"Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
"The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as surfactant is not an antibiotic and does not treat infections. Surfactant is a substance that is naturally produced by the lungs to reduce the surface tension and prevent the alveoli from collapsing. Premature infants may have insufficient surfactant, which can cause RDS.
Choice B reason: This statement is partially true, as surfactant can help reduce episodes of periodic apnea, which is a condition where the newborn stops breathing for more than 20 seconds. However, this is not the main purpose of surfactant therapy, and other interventions, such as oxygen, ventilation, and caffeine, may be needed to treat apnea.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as surfactant improves the ability of the baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are essential for life. Surfactant therapy can improve the lung function, reduce the need for mechanical ventilation, and prevent complications, such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia and pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: This statement is false, as surfactant does not affect the level of sedation in the newborn. Surfactant is administered through an endotracheal tube, which may require sedation to reduce discomfort and agitation. The nurse should monitor the newborn's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and pain level during and after the procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.
Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.
Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Polyuria is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, diabetes, or renal impairment. A client with severe preeclampsia may have oliguria, which is a urine output of less than 500 mL in 24 hours, due to the decreased renal perfusion and function.
Choice B reason: Report of headache is an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or vasospasm. A client with severe preeclampsia may also have other neurological symptoms, such as blurred vision, scotoma, photophobia, or hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Tachycardia is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate dehydration, infection, anxiety, or fetal distress. A client with severe preeclampsia may have bradycardia, which is a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute, due to the increased vagal tone and blood pressure.
Choice D reason: Absence of clonus is not an expected finding in a client with severe preeclampsia, as it can indicate normal or decreased neuromuscular irritability. A client with severe preeclampsia may have positive clonus, which is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed, due to the increased reflex excitability and hyperactivity.
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