A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
"Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
"Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."
"Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
"The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as surfactant is not an antibiotic and does not treat infections. Surfactant is a substance that is naturally produced by the lungs to reduce the surface tension and prevent the alveoli from collapsing. Premature infants may have insufficient surfactant, which can cause RDS.
Choice B reason: This statement is partially true, as surfactant can help reduce episodes of periodic apnea, which is a condition where the newborn stops breathing for more than 20 seconds. However, this is not the main purpose of surfactant therapy, and other interventions, such as oxygen, ventilation, and caffeine, may be needed to treat apnea.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as surfactant improves the ability of the baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide, which are essential for life. Surfactant therapy can improve the lung function, reduce the need for mechanical ventilation, and prevent complications, such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia and pulmonary hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: This statement is false, as surfactant does not affect the level of sedation in the newborn. Surfactant is administered through an endotracheal tube, which may require sedation to reduce discomfort and agitation. The nurse should monitor the newborn's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and pain level during and after the procedure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because it may indicate preterm labor, which is not an emergency. The nurse should assess the client's cervix, fetal heart rate, and hydration status, and administer tocolytic therapy as prescribed.
Choice B reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are expected findings in mild preeclampsia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure, urine output, and reflexes, and administer antihypertensive and anticonvulsant medications as prescribed.
Choice C reason: A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache needs to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are signs of severe preeclampsia or impending eclampsia. The nurse should prepare the client for delivery, as it is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia.
Choice D reason: A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors does not need to be reported to the provider immediately, because they are a common and mild side effect of terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse should reassure the client that the tremors are temporary and harmless, and monitor the client's pulse and blood pressure.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.
Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.
Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.
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