A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has been diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Molar pregnancy
Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum
Oligohydramnios
Multiple fetal gestation
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Molar pregnancy is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a gestational trophoblastic disease that causes an abnormal growth of the placenta and the production of high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is a hormone that stimulates nausea and vomiting. Molar pregnancy can cause severe and persistent hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as vaginal bleeding, uterine enlargement, and preeclampsia.
Choice B reason: Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it suggests a genetic or physiological predisposition to the condition. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs in pregnancy, and it can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and malnutrition. Hyperemesis gravidarum can recur in subsequent pregnancies, especially if the mother has the same partner, the same sex of the fetus, or a short interval between pregnancies.
Choice C reason: Oligohydramnios is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a low level of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus. Oligohydramnios is not related to hyperemesis gravidarum, and it is not a cause or a consequence of it. Oligohydramnios can affect the fetal development and the delivery, as it can cause fetal growth restriction, cord compression, or meconium aspiration.
Choice D reason: Multiple fetal gestation is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a condition where the mother is carrying more than one fetus. Multiple fetal gestation can cause higher levels of hCG, estrogen, and progesterone, which are hormones that stimulate nausea and vomiting. Multiple fetal gestation can cause more severe and prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as preterm labor, anemia, and preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nervousness is a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can provide reassurance and comfort to the client.
Choice B reason: Tremors are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes increased muscle activity and shakiness. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can monitor the client's vital signs and electrolyte levels, and advise the client to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
Choice C reason: Dyspnea is an uncommon and serious side effect of terbutaline, as it can indicate pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, or discontinuation of terbutaline.
Choice D reason: Headaches are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the brain. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can administer analgesics as prescribed, and encourage the client to rest and hydrate.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing a dark, quiet environment is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it can help reduce the client's blood pressure and prevent seizures.
Choice B reason: Evaluating neurologic status every 12 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status every 2 to 4 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of cerebral edema or eclampsia.
Choice C reason: Assessing respiratory status every 8 hr is not an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is not frequent enough. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory status every 1 to 2 hr, or more often if indicated, to detect signs of pulmonary edema or respiratory depression.
Choice D reason: Ensuring that calcium gluconate is readily available is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should have calcium gluconate on hand and know how to administer it in case of an emergency.
Choice E reason: Administering magnesium sulfate IV is an appropriate action for the nurse to implement, because it is the drug of choice for preventing and treating seizures in clients with severe gestational hypertension. The nurse should follow the protocol for magnesium sulfate administration and monitor the client's vital signs, urine output, reflexes, and serum magnesium levels.
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