A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hr postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood."
"It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn."
"It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood."
"It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood."
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.
Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.
Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar level that can affect newborns, especially those who are premature, small for gestational age, or have diabetic mothers. However, hypoglycemia does not explain the high FHR, the low Apgar scores, or the pale and tachypneic appearance of the newborn.
Choice B reason: Phrenic nerve injury is a rare complication of cesarean section that can cause diaphragmatic paralysis and respiratory distress in the newborn. However, phrenic nerve injury usually affects only one side of the chest, and does not cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, or pallor.
Choice C reason: Sepsis is a serious infection that can affect newborns, especially those who are exposed to prolonged rupture of membranes, as in this case. Sepsis can cause high FHR, low Apgar scores, pale and tachypneic appearance, and other signs of shock and organ failure.
Choice D reason: Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition where the newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid into the lungs, causing respiratory distress. However, meconium aspiration syndrome usually occurs in term or post-term infants, and is associated with low FHR, not high FHR. Meconium aspiration syndrome also causes cyanosis, not pallor.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) syndrome is not the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. DIC can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. DIC would cause a low platelet count, but also a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.
Choice B reason: Eclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a seizure disorder that occurs in clients with severe preeclampsia. Eclampsia can occur as a complication of severe preeclampsia, but it is not indicated by the laboratory results. Eclampsia would cause a high blood pressure, but also a proteinuria, edema, and hyperreflexia.
Choice C reason: Hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome is the correct answer, as it is a variant of severe preeclampsia that affects the blood and the liver. HELLP syndrome is indicated by the laboratory results, as it causes a low platelet count, an elevated AST level, and a falling hematocrit. HELLP syndrome would also cause a high blood pressure, a proteinuria, and a right upper quadrant pain.
Choice D reason: Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is not the correct answer, as it is an autoimmune disorder that causes the destruction of platelets by antibodies. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia can affect pregnant women, but it is not related to severe preeclampsia or the laboratory results. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia would cause a low platelet count, but not an elevated AST level or a falling hematocrit.
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