A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?

She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.

She is experiencing a normal latent stage.

She is experiencing precipitous labor.

She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction, because she has frequent and painful contractions that are ineffective in dilating the cervix. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too often and too forcefully, resulting in poor oxygenation and fetal distress. The woman may need tocolytic therapy, pain relief, and hydration.

Choice B reason: She is not experiencing a normal latent stage, because her contractions are too frequent and too painful for this phase of labor. The normal latent stage is characterized by irregular and mild contractions that gradually increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical dilation from 0 to 3 cm.

Choice C reason: She is not experiencing precipitous labor, because her labor is not progressing rapidly. Precipitous labor is defined as labor that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions to the delivery of the baby. It is associated with cervical dilation of more than 5 cm per hour.

Choice D reason: She is not exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction, because her contractions are not weak or infrequent. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too weakly or too rarely, resulting in prolonged labor and increased risk of infection. The woman may need oxytocin augmentation, amniotomy, or cesarean section.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Misoprostol is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin E1 analog that causes uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Misoprostol is used for the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is less effective and more side effects than oxytocin, which is the first line medication.

Choice B reason: Pitocin is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a synthetic form of oxytocin, which is a hormone that stimulates uterine contractions and retraction. Pitocin is used for the induction and augmentation of labor, and the prevention and treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, as it reduces blood loss and enhances hemostasis.

Choice C reason: Hemabate is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is a prostaglandin F2 alpha analog that causes uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Hemabate is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with asthma, hypertension, or cardiac disease, as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, or cardiac arrhythmias.

Choice D reason: Methergine is not the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage, as it is an ergot alkaloid that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methergine is used for the treatment of postpartum hemorrhage, but it is contraindicated in clients with hypertension, preeclampsia, or cardiac disease, as it can cause severe hypertension, cerebrovascular accidents, or myocardial infarction.

A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. B. Offer option to view products of conception. C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. D. Maintain the client in a Trendelenburg position.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula is not a necessary intervention for the client, unless she has signs of hypoxia, such as dyspnea, tachypnea, or cyanosis. Oxygen administration is not routinely indicated for clients with inevitable abortion.

Choice B reason: Offering option to view products of conception is an appropriate intervention for the client, because it can help her cope with the loss of pregnancy and facilitate the grieving process. The nurse should respect the client's decision and provide emotional support.

Choice C reason: Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet is not a relevant intervention for the client, unless she has signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cramps, or arrhythmias. Potassium intake is not related to the cause or prevention of inevitable abortion.

Choice D reason: Maintaining the client in a Trendelenburg position is not a recommended intervention for the client, because it can increase the risk of aspiration, respiratory compromise, and venous congestion. Trendelenburg position is not effective in preventing or treating inevitable abortion.

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A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

What is the first line medication for postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation and reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding. The tentative diagnosis is inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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