A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
She is experiencing precipitous labor.
She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction, because she has frequent and painful contractions that are ineffective in dilating the cervix. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too often and too forcefully, resulting in poor oxygenation and fetal distress. The woman may need tocolytic therapy, pain relief, and hydration.
Choice B reason: She is not experiencing a normal latent stage, because her contractions are too frequent and too painful for this phase of labor. The normal latent stage is characterized by irregular and mild contractions that gradually increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical dilation from 0 to 3 cm.
Choice C reason: She is not experiencing precipitous labor, because her labor is not progressing rapidly. Precipitous labor is defined as labor that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions to the delivery of the baby. It is associated with cervical dilation of more than 5 cm per hour.
Choice D reason: She is not exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction, because her contractions are not weak or infrequent. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too weakly or too rarely, resulting in prolonged labor and increased risk of infection. The woman may need oxytocin augmentation, amniotomy, or cesarean section.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Irregular fetal heart rate is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate fetal arrhythmia, distress, or demise. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have no fetal heart tones, as the pregnancy is nonviable and consists of abnormal trophoblastic tissue.
Choice B reason: Rapid decline in human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal termination of pregnancy. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have markedly elevated hCG levels, as the trophoblastic tissue secretes excessive amounts of the hormone.
Choice C reason: Profuse, clear vaginal discharge is not an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it can indicate a normal or abnormal cervical mucus production. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have vaginal bleeding, which is often dark brown or bright red, and may contain grape-like vesicles.
Choice D reason: Excessive uterine enlargement is an expected finding in a client with a hydatidiform mole, as it reflects the rapid growth of the trophoblastic tissue and the accumulation of fluid-filled vesicles. A client with a hydatidiform mole may have a uterus that is larger than expected for the gestational age, and may experience uterine cramping or pain.
Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
Explanation
To calculate the number of tablets, the nurse should use the following formula:
Number of tablets = (Desired dose / Available dose) x (Available form / Desired form)
In this case, the desired dose is 50 mg, the available dose is 100 mg, the available form is 1 tablet, and the desired form is 1 tablet. Therefore, the formula becomes:
Number of tablets = (50 mg / 100 mg) x (1 tablet / 1 tablet)
Number of tablets = 0.5 x 1
Number of tablets = 0.5
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 0.5. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is 0.5. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 0.5 and not 0.50.
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