A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
She is experiencing precipitous labor.
She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction, because she has frequent and painful contractions that are ineffective in dilating the cervix. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too often and too forcefully, resulting in poor oxygenation and fetal distress. The woman may need tocolytic therapy, pain relief, and hydration.
Choice B reason: She is not experiencing a normal latent stage, because her contractions are too frequent and too painful for this phase of labor. The normal latent stage is characterized by irregular and mild contractions that gradually increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical dilation from 0 to 3 cm.
Choice C reason: She is not experiencing precipitous labor, because her labor is not progressing rapidly. Precipitous labor is defined as labor that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions to the delivery of the baby. It is associated with cervical dilation of more than 5 cm per hour.
Choice D reason: She is not exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction, because her contractions are not weak or infrequent. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too weakly or too rarely, resulting in prolonged labor and increased risk of infection. The woman may need oxytocin augmentation, amniotomy, or cesarean section.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["200"]
Explanation
The correct answer is 200 mL/hr.
To calculate the IV rate, the nurse should use the following formula:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time of infusion (hr)) x Drop factor (gtt/mL)
In this case, the volume to be infused is 100 mL, the time of infusion is 0.5 hr (30 min), and the drop factor is 1 gtt/mL (assuming the IV pump is calibrated in mL/hr). Therefore, the formula becomes:
IV rate (mL/hr) = (100 mL / 0.5 hr) x 1 gtt/mL
IV rate (mL/hr) = 200 mL/hr
The nurse should round the answer to the nearest whole number, which is 200 mL/hr. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is not the case here. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 200 mL/hr and not 200.0 mL/hr.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Respiratory rate is the priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening complication. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate closely, and discontinue the infusion if it falls below 12 breaths per minute.
Choice B reason: Bowel sounds is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on the gastrointestinal system. The nurse should assess the client's bowel sounds as part of the routine physical examination, but it is not a critical parameter for this medication.
Choice C reason: Time of last food intake is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not interact with food or affect the absorption of nutrients. The nurse should inquire about the client's dietary intake and preferences, but it is not a vital factor for this medication.
Choice D reason: Temperature is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not cause fever or hypothermia. The nurse should measure the client's temperature as part of the vital signs, but it is not a key indicator for this medication.
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