A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
Placenta previa
Incompetent cervix
Prolapsed cord
Abruptio placentae
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A) Placenta previa is incorrect because this is not a likely complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. It can cause painless, bright red bleeding in the third trimester, especially after intercourse or a pelvic exam. However, it does not cause abdominal pain, as the bleeding is not associated with uterine contractions or separation. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Incompetent cervix is incorrect because this is not a possible complication for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding.
Incompetent cervix is a condition where the cervix is weak and unable to hold the pregnancy, leading to premature dilation and delivery. It can cause painless, watery vaginal discharge or spotting in the second trimester, followed by rupture of membranes and labor. However, it does not cause abdominal pain or heavy bleeding, as the cervix does not tear or detach from the uterus. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice C) Prolapsed cord is incorrect because this is not a common complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix and into the vagina before the baby, compressing the cord and cutting off the blood supply and oxygen to the baby. It can cause variable or prolonged fetal heart rate decelerations, visible or palpable cord in the vagina, or fetal distress. However, it does not cause abdominal pain or bleeding, as the cord does not rupture or bleed. Moreover, it is not related to gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice D) Abruptio placentae is correct because this is a probable complication for a client who has gestational hypertension and reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, causing hemorrhage and hypoxia for the mother and the baby. It can cause severe, constant abdominal pain, dark red bleeding, uterine tenderness or rigidity, fetal distress or demise, or maternal shock or coagulopathy. It can be triggered by gestational hypertension, which is a condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy and increases the risk of placental abruption by 25%. Therefore, this response is relevant and accurate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) Antihypertensive: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Antihypertensives are drugs that lower blood pressure, such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. Magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, and it is not used as a primary treatment for hypertension in preeclampsia.
Choice B) Anticonvulsant: This is the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Anticonvulsants are drugs that prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures, such as phenytoin, valproic acid, or carbamazepine.
Magnesium sulfate is used as a prophylactic and therapeutic agent for eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts by blocking the neuromuscular transmission and reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm.
Choice C) Tocolytic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Tocolytics are drugs that inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor, such as terbutaline, nifedipine, or indomethacin. Magnesium sulfate is not effective as a tocolytic agent, and it is not recommended for this purpose by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Choice D) Diuretic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid retention, such as furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, or spironolactone. Magnesium sulfate does not have a diuretic effect, and it can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema if administered in excess.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) Consult the physician, because the dose is too high is incorrect because this is not a necessary or appropriate action for a nurse who is following a valid order for betamethasone. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that can be used to accelerate fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants. The recommended dose for betamethasone is 12 mg IM every 24 hours for two doses, which is exactly what the physician ordered. Therefore, there is no reason to question or consult the physician about the dose, as it is within the normal range and based on evidence-based practice.
Choice b) Schedule the second dose for 11 am on the next day is incorrect because this is not a correct or accurate way to implement the order for betamethasone. Betamethasone should be given at least 24 hours apart, but not more than 48 hours apart, to achieve optimal fetal lung development and neonatal outcomes. Scheduling the second dose for 11 am on the next day would result in a 24-hour interval between the doses, which is acceptable, but not ideal. The best time to schedule the second dose would be between 24 and 48 hours after the first dose, such as at 11 pm on the same day or at 7 am on the next day.
Choice c) Prepare to administer the medication intramuscularly between contractions is correct because this is the best and most appropriate way to implement the order for betamethasone. Betamethasone should be given by intramuscular injection in a large muscle mass, such as the deltoid or gluteus, using a 21-gauge needle and a syringe with an air lock. The injection site should be cleaned with alcohol and aspirated before injecting. The medication should be administered between contractions, when the uterine blood flow is maximal and the fetal absorption is optimal. The nurse should also monitor the woman and the fetus for any adverse effects of betamethasone, such as maternal hyperglycemia, hypertension, infection, or edema, or fetal tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or infection.
Choice d) Explain to the woman that this medication will reduce her heart rate and help her to breathe easier is incorrect because this is not a true or relevant statement about betamethasone. Betamethasone does not have any direct effect on the maternal heart rate or respiratory function, as it is mainly intended to improve the fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants.
Betamethasone may cause some side effects such as increased blood pressure, blood sugar, or fluid retention in the mother, which may affect her cardiovascular or respiratory status indirectly. However, these effects are usually transient and mild, and do not outweigh the benefits of betamethasone for the fetus. Therefore, this statement is misleading and inaccurate.
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