A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and received methylergonovine (methergine). Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
Report of absent breast pain
Increase in lochia
Increase in blood pressure
Fundus firm to palpation
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A) Report of absent breast pain is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the client does not have mastitis or engorgement. Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that causes pain, swelling, redness, and fever. Engorgement is a condition where the breasts become overfilled with milk, causing pain, hardness, and leakage. Both conditions are common in postpartum women who are breastfeeding, but they are not related to methylergonovine or uterine bleeding. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Increase in lochia is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the medication was ineffective or that the client has a complication. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that consists of blood, mucus, and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. It usually lasts for about 4 to 6 weeks and gradually decreases in amount and color. Methylergonovine is a medication that helps to control uterine bleeding by improving the tone and contractions of the uterus. An increase in lochia may mean that methylergonovine did not work well or that the client has a problem such as retained placenta, infection, or subinvolution. Therefore, this response is opposite and inaccurate.
Choice C) Increase in blood pressure is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the client has a side effect or a risk factor. Blood pressure is the force of blood against the walls of the arteries. It is measured by two numbers: systolic (the pressure when the heart beats) and diastolic (the pressure when the heart rests). The normal range for blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg or lower. Methylergonovine is a medication that can cause vasoconstriction, which means narrowing of the blood vessels and increasing of the blood pressure. This can lead to complications such as hypertension, stroke, or heart attack. Therefore, this response is adverse and inaccurate.
Choice D) Fundus firm to palpation is correct because this is a finding that indicates that the medication was effective and that the client has a good outcome. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be felt through the abdomen after childbirth. It should be firm, midline, and at or below the level of the navel. A firm fundus means that the uterus has contracted well and stopped bleeding. Methylergonovine is a medication that helps to achieve this by improving the tone and contractions of the uterus. Therefore, this response is positive and accurate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: This is the correct answer because a hard and tender abdomen is a sign of concealed hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. The nurse needs to monitor the woman's blood loss, blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate to detect any complications and intervene accordingly.
Choice B: This is incorrect because opioid pain medication can mask the signs of shock and fetal distress, and may also cause respiratory depression in both the mother and the fetus. Pain relief should be given after assessing the woman's condition and consulting with the physician.
Choice C: This is incorrect because documenting the findings is not a priority action. The nurse needs to act quickly to prevent further blood loss and fetal compromise, and report the findings to the physician.
Choice D: This is incorrect because relaxation techniques may not be effective in reducing the pain and anxiety caused by abruptio placentae. The nurse should provide emotional support and reassurance to the woman, but also focus on assessing and managing her physical condition.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) Ectopic pregnancy is incorrect because this is not a condition that requires delivery by cesarean section. Ectopic pregnancy is a condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a life-threatening complication that can cause internal bleeding and rupture of the tube. Ectopic pregnancy cannot result in a viable baby and must be terminated as soon as possible, either by medication or surgery. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice b) Preeclampsia is incorrect because this is not a condition that always necessitates delivery by cesarean section. Preeclampsia is a condition where the blood pressure rises above 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, along with proteinuria and edema. It can cause complications such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction. The only cure for preeclampsia is delivery of the baby and placenta, but the mode of delivery depends on several factors, such as the gestational age, the severity of the condition, the fetal status, and the maternal preference. Therefore, some women with preeclampsia may deliver vaginally, while
others may need a cesarean section.
Choice c) Partial abruptio placentae is incorrect because this is not a condition that always necessitates delivery by cesarean section. Abruptio placentae is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, causing vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, uterine contractions, and fetal distress. It can be classified as partial or complete, depending on the extent of the separation. The mode of delivery for abruptio placentae depends on several factors, such as the degree of bleeding, the fetal viability, the cervical dilation, and the fetal position.
Therefore, some women with partial abruptio placentae may deliver vaginally, while others may need a cesarean section.
Choice d) Total placenta previa is correct because this is the only condition that always necessitates delivery by cesarean section. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. It can be classified as marginal, partial, or total, depending on the degree of overlap. The mode of delivery for placenta previa depends on several factors, such as the type of previa, the amount of bleeding, the gestational age, and the fetal status. However, women with total placenta previa have no chance of delivering vaginally, as the placenta completely blocks the birth canal. Therefore, they must have a cesarean section to avoid hemorrhage and fetal compromise.
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