While assessing the newborn, the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is __ beats/min.
100 to 120
120 to 160
80 to 100
150 to 180
The Correct Answer is B
Choice a) 100 to 120 is incorrect because this is too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. The heart rate of a newborn is influenced by factors such as gestational age, activity level, temperature, and health status. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which reflects their high metabolic rate and oxygen demand. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice b) 120 to 160 is correct because this is the normal range for a full-term, quiet, alert newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is the best way to measure the heart rate of a newborn, as it reflects the actual contractions of the heart. The apical pulse can be auscultated at the fourth intercostal space on the left side of the chest, just below the nipple line. The nurse should count the apical pulse for a full minute, as it may vary with the respiratory cycle.
Choice c) 80 to 100 is incorrect because this is also too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is higher than that of an adult or an older child. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice d) 150 to 180 is incorrect because this is too high for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is lower than that of a preterm or a crying newborn. A heart rate above 160 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by fever, infection, anemia, or hyperthyroidism.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation is incorrect because this is not the definition of SGA. SGA refers to newborns who have a birth weight or length that is significantly lower than expected for their gestational age, regardless of when they are born. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they are born at term or post-term.
Choice b) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition is incorrect because this is not the only factor that can contribute to SGA. Placental malfunction can cause fetal growth restriction due to insufficient blood supply and nutrients to the fetus, but there are other possible causes such as maternal factors (e.g.,
hypertension, diabetes, smoking, malnutrition), fetal factors (e.g., chromosomal abnormalities, infections, congenital anomalies), and environmental factors (e.g., altitude, pollution, stress).
Choice c) They weigh less than 2500 g is incorrect because this is not the criterion for SGA. SGA is based on the comparison of the newborn's weight or length with the expected values for their gestational age, not on an absolute cutoff. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they weigh more than 2500 g, as long as they are below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Choice d) They are below the 10th percentile on gestational growth charts is correct because this is the most commonly used definition of SGA. Gestational growth charts are tools that plot the expected weight or length of a fetus or newborn according to their gestational age and sex. They are based on population data and can vary
depending on the ethnicity and region of origin of the mother and the baby. A newborn who falls below the 10th percentile on these charts is considered SGA, meaning that they have grown less than 90% of their peers .
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