A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As the nurse prepares her for discharge, she begins to cry. What action should the nurse take first?
Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby
Assess her for pain
Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues
Allow her time to express her feelings
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: This is the correct answer because a hard and tender abdomen is a sign of concealed hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. The nurse needs to monitor the woman's blood loss, blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate to detect any complications and intervene accordingly.
Choice B: This is incorrect because opioid pain medication can mask the signs of shock and fetal distress, and may also cause respiratory depression in both the mother and the fetus. Pain relief should be given after assessing the woman's condition and consulting with the physician.
Choice C: This is incorrect because documenting the findings is not a priority action. The nurse needs to act quickly to prevent further blood loss and fetal compromise, and report the findings to the physician.
Choice D: This is incorrect because relaxation techniques may not be effective in reducing the pain and anxiety caused by abruptio placentae. The nurse should provide emotional support and reassurance to the woman, but also focus on assessing and managing her physical condition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) D5W intravenously is incorrect because this is not the preferred method of feeding for a hypoglycemic infant. D5W stands for dextrose 5% in water, which is a solution that contains glucose and water. It can be used to treat hypoglycemia by providing a source of energy and fluid to the infant. However, it has several disadvantages, such as requiring an invasive procedure, increasing the risk of infection, causing fluid overload or electrolyte imbalance, and stimulating insulin secretion, which can lead to rebound hypoglycemia. Therefore, D5W intravenously should be reserved for severe cases of hypoglycemia that do not respond to oral or enteral feeding.
Choice b) Formula via nasogastric tube is incorrect because this is not the first-line option of feeding for a hypoglycemic infant. Formula is an artificial substitute for breast milk that contains nutrients and calories to support the infant's growth and development. It can be given via nasogastric tube, which is a tube that passes through the nose and into the stomach, when the infant cannot suck or swallow effectively. However, formula has several disadvantages, such as being less digestible, less immunogenic, and less adaptable than breast milk, as well as increasing the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis, allergy, or infection. Therefore, formula via nasogastric tube should be used only when breast milk is unavailable or contraindicated.
Choice c) Breast milk is correct because this is the best and most recommended type of feeding for a hypoglycemic infant. Breast milk is the natural and optimal food for infants that contains all the nutrients and antibodies they need to grow and thrive. It can be given directly from the breast or expressed and fed by bottle or cup. Breast milk has several advantages, such as being easily digestible, enhancing immune function, promoting bonding, and adjusting to the infant's needs. Breast milk also contains lactose, which is a natural sugar that can raise the blood glucose level of the infant without causing a spike in insulin secretion. Therefore, breast milk should be offered to the hypoglycemic infant as soon as possible after birth and at regular intervals thereafter.
Choice d) Glucose water in a bottle is incorrect because this is not an appropriate type of feeding for a hypoglycemic infant. Glucose water is a solution that contains glucose and water. It can be given by bottle or cup to provide a quick source of energy to the infant. However, it has several disadvantages, such as providing no other nutrients or calories, interfering with breastfeeding, causing diarrhea or dehydration, and stimulating insulin secretion, which can lead to rebound hypoglycemia. Therefore, glucose water in a bottle should be avoided or used sparingly for mild cases of hypoglycemia that do not respond to breast milk.
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