A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As the nurse prepares her for discharge, she begins to cry. What action should the nurse take first?
Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby
Assess her for pain
Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues
Allow her time to express her feelings
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.

Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A) dilates the bronchioles, decreasing airway resistance: This is not the correct function of surfactant.
Surfactant is a substance that reduces the surface tension of the fluid that lines the alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs. Surfactant does not affect the diameter of the bronchioles, which are the small airways that branch from the bronchi. Bronchodilation and bronchoconstriction are regulated by the autonomic nervous system and various mediators, such as histamine, epinephrine, and acetylcholine.
Choice B) provides transportation for oxygen to enter the blood supply: This is not the correct function of surfactant. Surfactant does not transport oxygen or any other gas. Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the capillaries, where it binds to hemoglobin in the red blood cells. The red blood cells then transport oxygen to the tissues via the blood circulation. Surfactant does not play a role in this process.
Choice C) keeps the alveoli open during expiration: This is the correct function of surfactant. Surfactant prevents the alveoli from collapsing during expiration by lowering the surface tension of the fluid that lines them. This allows for easier breathing and better gas exchange. Without enough surfactant, the alveoli tend to collapse and stick together, causing atelectasis, which is a condition where some or all of a lung collapses. Atelectasis can lead to hypoxia, respiratory distress, and infection.
Choice D) causes increased permeability of the alveoli: This is not the correct function of surfactant. Surfactant does not increase or decrease the permeability of the alveoli, which is the ability of substances to pass through them.
Permeability of the alveoli depends on several factors, such as pressure gradients, solubility, molecular size, and membrane thickness. Increased permeability of the alveoli can occur in conditions such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), where fluid leaks into the alveolar space and impairs gas exchange. Surfactant does not cause this condition, but it can be affected by it.

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