A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As the nurse prepares her for discharge, she begins to cry. What action should the nurse take first?
Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby
Assess her for pain
Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues
Allow her time to express her feelings
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation is incorrect because this is not the definition of SGA. SGA refers to newborns who have a birth weight or length that is significantly lower than expected for their gestational age, regardless of when they are born. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they are born at term or post-term.
Choice b) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition is incorrect because this is not the only factor that can contribute to SGA. Placental malfunction can cause fetal growth restriction due to insufficient blood supply and nutrients to the fetus, but there are other possible causes such as maternal factors (e.g.,
hypertension, diabetes, smoking, malnutrition), fetal factors (e.g., chromosomal abnormalities, infections, congenital anomalies), and environmental factors (e.g., altitude, pollution, stress).
Choice c) They weigh less than 2500 g is incorrect because this is not the criterion for SGA. SGA is based on the comparison of the newborn's weight or length with the expected values for their gestational age, not on an absolute cutoff. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they weigh more than 2500 g, as long as they are below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Choice d) They are below the 10th percentile on gestational growth charts is correct because this is the most commonly used definition of SGA. Gestational growth charts are tools that plot the expected weight or length of a fetus or newborn according to their gestational age and sex. They are based on population data and can vary
depending on the ethnicity and region of origin of the mother and the baby. A newborn who falls below the 10th percentile on these charts is considered SGA, meaning that they have grown less than 90% of their peers .
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