A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who had an emergency cesarean birth 3 days ago is scheduled for discharge. As the nurse prepares her for discharge, she begins to cry. What action should the nurse take first?
Point out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby
Assess her for pain
Explain that she is experiencing postpartum blues
Allow her time to express her feelings
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice result from breakdown of erythrocytes. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin, a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are destroyed. However, the rate and extent of hemolysis differ between the two types of jaundice.
Choice B: This is incorrect because kernicterus is a rare and serious complication of jaundice, not a usual outcome. Kernicterus occurs when bilirubin levels are very high and the pigment deposits in the brain, causing neurological damage. It can affect both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice, but it is more likely to occur in nonphysiological jaundice due to higher bilirubin levels and underlying conditions.
Choice C: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice begin at the head and progress down the body. This is because bilirubin accumulates in areas with high fat content, such as the skin, eyes, and brain. The distribution of jaundice depends on the level of bilirubin in the blood, not on the type of jaundice.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because nonphysiological jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life, whereas physiological jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life. Nonphysiological jaundice is caused by factors that increase hemolysis or impair bilirubin metabolism or excretion, such as blood group incompatibility, infection, liver disease, or enzyme deficiency. Physiological jaundice is caused by normal adaptation processes that occur after birth, such as increased red blood cell turnover, immature liver function, and delayed intestinal flora colonization.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is incorrect because this is a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The average urine output for a healthy adult is about 800 to 2000 mL per day, which means about 100 to 250 mL per hour. Therefore, a urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is within the normal range and does not indicate any complications.
Choice b) Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The weight loss is due to the expulsion of the placenta, amniotic fluid, and blood during delivery. A postpartum woman can expect to lose about 10 to 12 pounds immediately after giving birth, and another 5 pounds in the following weeks due to fluid loss. Therefore, a weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is not a cause for concern and does not need to be reported to the obstetrician.
Choice c) Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The normal resting pulse rate for an adult ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to blood loss and reduced cardiac output. Therefore, a pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is not indicative of any problems and does not require any intervention.
Choice d) Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is correct because this is an abnormal finding for a postpartum woman and suggests that she has developed anemia due to excessive blood loss. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and it reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The normal hematocrit range for an adult female is 37% to 47%, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to hemodilution. However, a drop in hematocrit of more than 10% from the baseline or below 30% indicates severe anemia and requires immediate treatment. Therefore, a drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is a significant change that should be reported to the obstetrician as soon as possible.
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