What documentation on a woman's chart on postpartum day 14 indicates a normal involution process?
Breasts firm and tender
Episiotomy slightly red and puffy
Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable
Moderate bright red lochial flow
The Correct Answer is C
Choice a) Breasts firm and tender is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of breast engorgement, which is a common problem in the first few weeks of breastfeeding. Breast engorgement occurs when thE breasts become overfilled with milk, causing them to feel hard, swollen, painful, and warm. It can be prevented or relieved by frequent and effective breastfeeding, applying warm or cold compresses, massaging the breasts, expressing some milk, and wearing a supportive bra.
Choice b) Episiotomy slightly red and puffy is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of inflammation or infection of the perineal wound. An episiotomy is a surgical cut made in the perineum (the area between the vagina and the anus) to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery. It can take several weeks to heal and may cause pain, swelling, bruising, bleeding, or discharge. It can be cared for by keeping the area clean and dry, applying ice packs or witch hazel pads, taking painkillers or sitz baths, and avoiding constipation or straining.
Choice c) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable is correct because this is a sign of normal involution, which is the process of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and shape after delivery. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be felt through the abdomen. Immediately after delivery, the fundus is about the size of a grapefruit and can be felt at or above the umbilicus (the navel). It gradually descends about one fingerbreadth per day until it reaches the level of the symphysis pubis (the joint where the two pubic bones meet) by about 10 days postpartum. By 14 days postpartum, the fundus should be below the symphysis and not palpable.
Choice d) Moderate bright red lochial flow is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of excessive or prolonged bleeding after delivery. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that consists of blood, mucus, and tissue from the lining of the uterus. It changes in color and amount over time, from red to pink to brown to yellow to white. The normal lochia flow should be scant to moderate in amount, dark red to brown in color, and last for about 4 to 6 weeks postpartum. A moderate bright red lochial flow on day 14 postpartum may indicate that the uterus is not contracting well or that there is an infection or retained placental tissue in the uterus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A) Decreased metabolic rate is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a cause of it. Metabolic rate is the speed at which the body uses energy to perform its functions. Newborns have a high metabolic rate, which helps them to maintain a normal body temperature of 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). However, some factors can lower the metabolic rate of newborns, such as prematurity, low birth weight, infection, or hypoglycemia. A low metabolic rate can make the newborn more susceptible to heat loss and hypothermia, which is a condition that occurs when the body temperature drops below 36°C (96.8°F). Therefore, this response is inaccurate and misleading.
Choice B) Decreased oxygen demands is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a consequence of it. Oxygen demand is the amount of oxygen that the body needs to function properly.
Newborns have a high oxygen demand, which helps them to support their growth and development. However, some factors can decrease the oxygen demand of newborns, such as hypothermia, sedation, or asphyxia. A low oxygen demand can impair the oxygen delivery and utilization by the tissues and organs, leading to hypoxia, acidosis, or organ failure. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice C) Shivering to generate heat is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a mechanism that is absent in them. Shivering is an involuntary contraction of the muscles that produces heat and raises the body temperature. It is a common response to cold exposure in adults and older children, but not in newborns. Newborns do not have the ability to shiver, as their muscles are immature and lack glycogen stores.
Instead, they rely on other methods to generate heat, such as non-shivering thermogenesis, which involves burning brown fat in certain areas of the body. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice D) Increased glucose demands is correct because this is a result of hypothermia in the newborn that can cause complications. Glucose demand is the amount of glucose that the body needs to produce energy and maintain its functions. Newborns have a high glucose demand, which helps them to support their metabolic rate and thermoregulation. However, some factors can increase the glucose demand of newborns, such as hypothermia, stress, or infection. A high glucose demand can deplete the glucose stores and cause hypoglycemia, which is a low level of glucose in the blood that can lead to seizures, brain damage, or death. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
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