Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a newborn who develops sepsis?

Choice A: This is incorrect because acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), also known as aspirin, is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a preventive measure. ASA may reduce the risk of preeclampsia in some high-risk women by inhibiting platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the placenta. However, ASA is not recommended for all pregnant women, as it may have adverse effects on the mother and the fetus, such as bleeding, premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, or fetal growth restriction.

Choice B: This is the correct answer because delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as it eliminates the source of the placental factors that cause the condition. Preeclampsia is a multisystem disorder characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is caused by abnormal placentation and endothelial dysfunction that lead to vasoconstriction, inflammation, and coagulation.

Delivery of the fetus and the placenta resolves these abnormalities and restores normal maternal physiology.

Choice C: This is incorrect because antihypertensive medications are not a cure for preeclampsia, but a symptomatic management. Antihypertensive medications may lower the blood pressure and reduce the risk of maternal complications, such as stroke, seizure, or organ damage. However, antihypertensive medications do not address the underlying cause of preeclampsia and do not improve fetal outcomes. Moreover, some antihypertensive medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects.

Choice D: This is incorrect because magnesium sulfate is not a cure for preeclampsia, but a prophylaxis for eclampsia. Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves seizures and coma. Magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant that prevents or treats eclamptic seizures by stabilizing neuronal membranes and reducing cerebral edema. However, magnesium sulfate does not lower blood pressure or improve renal function in preeclamptic women. It also has side effects such as nausea, flushing, headache, or respiratory depression.

Choice A: This is the correct answer because a hard and tender abdomen is a sign of concealed hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. The nurse needs to monitor the woman's blood loss, blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate to detect any complications and intervene accordingly.

Choice B: This is incorrect because opioid pain medication can mask the signs of shock and fetal distress, and may also cause respiratory depression in both the mother and the fetus. Pain relief should be given after assessing the woman's condition and consulting with the physician.

Choice C: This is incorrect because documenting the findings is not a priority action. The nurse needs to act quickly to prevent further blood loss and fetal compromise, and report the findings to the physician.

Choice D: This is incorrect because relaxation techniques may not be effective in reducing the pain and anxiety caused by abruptio placentae. The nurse should provide emotional support and reassurance to the woman, but also focus on assessing and managing her physical condition.