A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is
Antihypertensive
Anticonvulsant
Tocolytic
Diuretic
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) Antihypertensive: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Antihypertensives are drugs that lower blood pressure, such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. Magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, and it is not used as a primary treatment for hypertension in preeclampsia.
Choice B) Anticonvulsant: This is the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Anticonvulsants are drugs that prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures, such as phenytoin, valproic acid, or carbamazepine.
Magnesium sulfate is used as a prophylactic and therapeutic agent for eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts by blocking the neuromuscular transmission and reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm.
Choice C) Tocolytic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Tocolytics are drugs that inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor, such as terbutaline, nifedipine, or indomethacin. Magnesium sulfate is not effective as a tocolytic agent, and it is not recommended for this purpose by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Choice D) Diuretic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid retention, such as furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, or spironolactone. Magnesium sulfate does not have a diuretic effect, and it can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema if administered in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because pointing out how lucky she is to have a healthy baby may invalidate her feelings and make her feel guilty or ashamed. The nurse should acknowledge and respect the client's emotions and avoid making judgments or comparisons.
Choice B: This is incorrect because assessing her for pain is not the first action that the nurse should take. Although pain may be a factor that contributes to the client's emotional state, it is not the primary cause of her crying. The nurse should first establish rapport and trust with the client and then assess her physical and psychological needs.
Choice C: This is incorrect because explaining that she is experiencing postpartum blues may be premature and inaccurate. Postpartum blues are mild and transient mood changes that occur in up to 80% of women within the first few days after childbirth. They are characterized by tearfulness, irritability, anxiety, and mood swings. However, the nurse should not assume that the client has postpartum blues without performing a thorough assessment and ruling out other possible causes of her crying, such as postpartum depression, anxiety, or trauma.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because allowing her time to express her feelings is the most appropriate and empathetic action that the nurse should take first. The nurse should listen actively and attentively to the client and provide emotional support and reassurance. The nurse should also use open-ended questions and reflective statements to facilitate communication and explore the client's concerns and coping strategies.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) Wrap the cord loosely with a sterile towel saturated with warm normal saline: This is not an appropriate action because it does not relieve the compression of the cord, which can cause fetal hypoxia and acidosis. The cord should be kept moist, but not wrapped around anything.
Choice B) Place a sterile gloved hand into the vagina and hold the presenting part off the cord while calling for assistance: This is the correct action because it prevents further descent of the fetus and reduces the pressure on the cord, which can improve fetal oxygenation and blood flow. The nurse should also elevate the woman's hips and place her in a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position to reduce gravity. The nurse should call for immediate assistance and prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
Choice C) Increase the IV drip rate: This is not an appropriate action because it does not address the cause of the variable decelerations, which is cord compression. Increasing the IV fluid may cause fluid overload and worsen maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice D) Administer oxygen to the woman via mask at 8 to 10 L/minute: This is not an appropriate action because it does not relieve the cord compression, which is the main threat to fetal well-being. Oxygen administration may be helpful in some cases of fetal distress, but it is not sufficient in this situation.
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