A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is
Antihypertensive
Anticonvulsant
Tocolytic
Diuretic
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) Antihypertensive: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Antihypertensives are drugs that lower blood pressure, such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. Magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, and it is not used as a primary treatment for hypertension in preeclampsia.
Choice B) Anticonvulsant: This is the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Anticonvulsants are drugs that prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures, such as phenytoin, valproic acid, or carbamazepine.
Magnesium sulfate is used as a prophylactic and therapeutic agent for eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts by blocking the neuromuscular transmission and reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm.
Choice C) Tocolytic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Tocolytics are drugs that inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor, such as terbutaline, nifedipine, or indomethacin. Magnesium sulfate is not effective as a tocolytic agent, and it is not recommended for this purpose by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Choice D) Diuretic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid retention, such as furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, or spironolactone. Magnesium sulfate does not have a diuretic effect, and it can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema if administered in excess.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) They are born before 38 weeks of gestation is incorrect because this is not the definition of SGA. SGA refers to newborns who have a birth weight or length that is significantly lower than expected for their gestational age, regardless of when they are born. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they are born at term or post-term.
Choice b) Placental malfunction is the only recognized cause of this condition is incorrect because this is not the only factor that can contribute to SGA. Placental malfunction can cause fetal growth restriction due to insufficient blood supply and nutrients to the fetus, but there are other possible causes such as maternal factors (e.g.,
hypertension, diabetes, smoking, malnutrition), fetal factors (e.g., chromosomal abnormalities, infections, congenital anomalies), and environmental factors (e.g., altitude, pollution, stress).
Choice c) They weigh less than 2500 g is incorrect because this is not the criterion for SGA. SGA is based on the comparison of the newborn's weight or length with the expected values for their gestational age, not on an absolute cutoff. Therefore, a newborn can be SGA even if they weigh more than 2500 g, as long as they are below the 10th percentile for their gestational age.
Choice d) They are below the 10th percentile on gestational growth charts is correct because this is the most commonly used definition of SGA. Gestational growth charts are tools that plot the expected weight or length of a fetus or newborn according to their gestational age and sex. They are based on population data and can vary
depending on the ethnicity and region of origin of the mother and the baby. A newborn who falls below the 10th percentile on these charts is considered SGA, meaning that they have grown less than 90% of their peers .
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: This is the correct answer because a hard and tender abdomen is a sign of concealed hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and fetal distress. The nurse needs to monitor the woman's blood loss, blood pressure, pulse, and fetal heart rate to detect any complications and intervene accordingly.
Choice B: This is incorrect because opioid pain medication can mask the signs of shock and fetal distress, and may also cause respiratory depression in both the mother and the fetus. Pain relief should be given after assessing the woman's condition and consulting with the physician.
Choice C: This is incorrect because documenting the findings is not a priority action. The nurse needs to act quickly to prevent further blood loss and fetal compromise, and report the findings to the physician.
Choice D: This is incorrect because relaxation techniques may not be effective in reducing the pain and anxiety caused by abruptio placentae. The nurse should provide emotional support and reassurance to the woman, but also focus on assessing and managing her physical condition.
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