A woman with severe preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is
Antihypertensive
Anticonvulsant
Tocolytic
Diuretic
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) Antihypertensive: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Antihypertensives are drugs that lower blood pressure, such as beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. Magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on blood pressure, and it is not used as a primary treatment for hypertension in preeclampsia.
Choice B) Anticonvulsant: This is the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Anticonvulsants are drugs that prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of seizures, such as phenytoin, valproic acid, or carbamazepine.
Magnesium sulfate is used as a prophylactic and therapeutic agent for eclampsia, which is a life-threatening complication of preeclampsia characterized by seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts by blocking the neuromuscular transmission and reducing the cerebral edema and vasospasm.
Choice C) Tocolytic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Tocolytics are drugs that inhibit uterine contractions and delay preterm labor, such as terbutaline, nifedipine, or indomethacin. Magnesium sulfate is not effective as a tocolytic agent, and it is not recommended for this purpose by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.
Choice D) Diuretic: This is not the correct classification of magnesium sulfate. Diuretics are drugs that increase urine output and reduce fluid retention, such as furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, or spironolactone. Magnesium sulfate does not have a diuretic effect, and it can cause fluid overload and pulmonary edema if administered in excess.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice result from breakdown of erythrocytes. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bilirubin, a yellow pigment that is produced when red blood cells are destroyed. However, the rate and extent of hemolysis differ between the two types of jaundice.
Choice B: This is incorrect because kernicterus is a rare and serious complication of jaundice, not a usual outcome. Kernicterus occurs when bilirubin levels are very high and the pigment deposits in the brain, causing neurological damage. It can affect both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice, but it is more likely to occur in nonphysiological jaundice due to higher bilirubin levels and underlying conditions.
Choice C: This is incorrect because both physiological and nonphysiological jaundice begin at the head and progress down the body. This is because bilirubin accumulates in areas with high fat content, such as the skin, eyes, and brain. The distribution of jaundice depends on the level of bilirubin in the blood, not on the type of jaundice.
Choice D: This is the correct answer because nonphysiological jaundice appears in the first 24 hours of life, whereas physiological jaundice appears after the first 24 hours of life. Nonphysiological jaundice is caused by factors that increase hemolysis or impair bilirubin metabolism or excretion, such as blood group incompatibility, infection, liver disease, or enzyme deficiency. Physiological jaundice is caused by normal adaptation processes that occur after birth, such as increased red blood cell turnover, immature liver function, and delayed intestinal flora colonization.

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