What action by the nurse is the most important action in preventing neonatal infection?
Standard Precautions
Good hand hygiene
Separate gown technique
Isolation of infected infants
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A: This is incorrect because Standard Precautions are a set of guidelines that apply to all patients, regardless of their infection status. They include using personal protective equipment, handling sharps and waste properly, and cleaning and disinfecting equipment and surfaces. However, they are not enough to prevent neonatal infection, as some pathogens can still be transmitted by contact or droplet.
Choice B: This is the correct answer because good hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the transmission of microorganisms that can cause neonatal infection. The nurse should wash their hands with soap and water or use an alcohol-based hand rub before and after touching the infant, the infant's environment, or any items that come in contact with the infant. The nurse should also educate the parents and visitors on the importance of hand hygiene and how to perform it correctly.
Choice C: This is incorrect because a separate gown technique involves wearing a clean gown for each infant and discarding it after use. This can help prevent cross-contamination between infants, but it does not eliminate the need for hand hygiene. The nurse should still wash their hands before and after wearing a gown, as well as before and after touching the infant or any items that come in contact with the infant.
Choice D: This is incorrect because isolation of infected infants involves placing them in a separate room or area with restricted access and using additional precautions based on the mode of transmission of the infection. This can help prevent the spread of infection to other infants, staff, or visitors, but it does not eliminate the need for hand hygiene. The nurse should still wash their hands before and after entering and leaving the isolation area, as well as before and after touching the infant or any items that come in contact with the infant.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice a) Urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is incorrect because this is a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The average urine output for a healthy adult is about 800 to 2000 mL per day, which means about 100 to 250 mL per hour. Therefore, a urine output of 200 mL for the past 8 hours is within the normal range and does not indicate any complications.
Choice b) Weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The weight loss is due to the expulsion of the placenta, amniotic fluid, and blood during delivery. A postpartum woman can expect to lose about 10 to 12 pounds immediately after giving birth, and another 5 pounds in the following weeks due to fluid loss. Therefore, a weight decrease of 2 pounds since delivery is not a cause for concern and does not need to be reported to the obstetrician.
Choice c) Pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is incorrect because this is also a normal finding for a postpartum woman. The normal resting pulse rate for an adult ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to blood loss and reduced cardiac output. Therefore, a pulse rate of 65 beats per minute is not indicative of any problems and does not require any intervention.
Choice d) Drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is correct because this is an abnormal finding for a postpartum woman and suggests that she has developed anemia due to excessive blood loss. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, and it reflects the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. The normal hematocrit range for an adult female is 37% to 47%, and it may decrease slightly after delivery due to hemodilution. However, a drop in hematocrit of more than 10% from the baseline or below 30% indicates severe anemia and requires immediate treatment. Therefore, a drop in hematocrit of 6% since admission is a significant change that should be reported to the obstetrician as soon as possible.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A) Maternal blood type is correct because this is an essential and relevant information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Spontaneous abortion, also known as miscarriage, is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation. It can be caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities, infections, trauma, or hormonal imbalances. Maternal blood type is the classification of blood based on the presence or absence of antigens and antibodies on the red blood cells and plasma. The most common blood types are A, B, AB, and O, and each can be positive or negative for the Rh factor. Checking maternal blood type can help to identify and prevent Rh incompatibility, which is a condition that occurs when the mother has Rh-negative blood and the fetus has Rh-positive blood. This can cause the mother's immune system to produce antibodies that attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN), which can cause anemia, jaundice, or death. To prevent this, the nurse should administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to the mother within 72 hours after a spontaneous abortion or any event that may cause mixing of maternal and fetal blood. Therefore, this information is vital and appropriate for the nurse to check.
Choice B) Past obstetric history is incorrect because this is not an essential or urgent information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Past obstetric history is the record of previous pregnancies and their outcomes, such as number, duration, complications, or interventions. It can provide useful information for assessing the risk factors and health status of the current pregnancy. However, it does not have any immediate impact or implication for the management of a spontaneous abortion, which is a common and unpredictable event that affects about 10% to 20% of all pregnancies. Therefore, this information can be obtained later or from other sources by the nurse.
Choice C) Maternal varicella titer is incorrect because this is not a relevant or necessary information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Varicella titer is a blood test that measures the level of antibodies against varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which causes chickenpox and shingles. It can indicate whether a person has immunity to VZV or needs vaccination. Checking maternal varicella titer may be important for pregnant women who have not had chickenpox or vaccination before, as VZV infection during pregnancy can cause congenital varicella syndrome (CVS), which can affect the development and function of various organs in the fetus. However, it does not relate to spontaneous abortion, which is not caused by VZV infection or immunity. Therefore, this information is irrelevant and unnecessary for the nurse to check.
Choice D) Cervical patency is incorrect because this is not a reliable or accurate information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Cervical patency means how open or closed the cervix is, which can affect the progress and outcome of labor and delivery. The cervix is usually closed and firm during pregnancy, but it gradually softens, shortens, and dilates as labor approaches. Checking cervical patency can help to determine if labor has started or if there are any complications such as preterm labor or cervical incompetence.
However, it does not indicate if a spontaneous abortion has occurred or not, as the cervix may remain closed or partially open after a miscarriage. Moreover, checking cervical patency can be invasive and uncomfortable for the woman who has had a spontaneous abortion, and it may increase the risk of infection or bleeding. Therefore, this information should be checked only when indicated by the physician and with caution by the nurse.
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