A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV. The client's respiratory rate is 10/min and deep-tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Prepare for an emergency cesarean birth.
Discontinue the medication infusion.
Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.
Assess maternal blood glucose.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) Prepare for an emergency cesarean birth is incorrect because this is not a priority or appropriate action for a nurse who is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV.
Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema during pregnancy. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, which is seizures, or HELLP syndrome, which is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Magnesium sulfate is a medication that helps to prevent or treat seizures in preeclamptic clients by relaxing the muscles and nerves. However, it can also cause side effects such as respiratory depression, hypotension, or loss of reflexes. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth may be necessary if the client has severe preeclampsia or fetal distress, but it does not address the immediate problem of magnesium toxicity. Therefore, this action should be done only when indicated by the physician and after stabilizing the client's condition.
Choice B) Discontinue the medication infusion is correct because this is a priority and appropriate action for a nurse who is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV. Discontinuing the medication infusion can help to stop or reduce the adverse effects of magnesium sulfate, such as respiratory depression, hypotension, or loss of reflexes. These effects can indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a life-threatening condition that can cause cardiac arrest or coma. The nurse should also notify the physician and prepare to administer calcium gluconate, which is an antidote for magnesium toxicity. Therefore, this action should be done as soon as possible for clients who show signs of magnesium overdose.
Choice C) Place the client in Trendelenburg's position is incorrect because this is not a safe or suitable action for a nurse who is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV.
Trendelenburg's position means lying on the back with the head lower than the feet. It is sometimes used to improve blood flow to the brain or heart in cases of shock or hypotension. However, it can also cause complications such as increased intracranial pressure, decreased lung expansion, aspiration, or acid reflux. Moreover, it does not help to reverse or prevent the side effects of magnesium sulfate, such as respiratory depression, hypotension, or loss of reflexes. Therefore, this action should be avoided or used with caution for clients who are receiving magnesium sulfate IV.
Choice D) Assess maternal blood glucose is incorrect because this is not a relevant or necessary action for a nurse who is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is being treated with magnesium sulfate IV. Blood glucose is the level of sugar in the blood that provides energy to the cells. It is measured by a blood test or a finger stick test. It can be affected by various factors such as diet, exercise, medication, or pregnancy. Assessing maternal blood glucose may be important for clients who have diabetes or gestational diabetes, which are conditions that cause high blood sugar levels that can harm the mother and the baby. However, it does not relate to preeclampsia or magnesium sulfate, which are conditions that affect blood pressure and nerve function. Therefore, this action should be done only when indicated by the physician and according to the client's history and needs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A) Missed abortion: This is not the correct obstetric complication for methotrexate treatment. A missed abortion is a type of miscarriage in which the fetus has died but the products of conception are still retained in the uterus. Methotrexate is not used for this condition, as it can cause toxicity and bleeding. The usual treatment options for a missed abortion are expectant management, medical induction, or surgical evacuation.
Choice B) Abruptio placentae: This is not the correct obstetric complication for methotrexate treatment. Abruptio placentae is a condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, causing bleeding and fetal distress. Methotrexate is not used for this condition, as it can worsen the bleeding and harm the fetus. The usual treatment options for abruptio placentae depend on the severity of the condition and the gestational age, but they may include fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion, tocolysis, or emergency delivery.
Choice C) Unruptured ectopic pregnancy: This is the correct obstetric complication for methotrexate treatment. An ectopic pregnancy is a pregnancy that implants outside of the uterine cavity, usually in the fallopian tube. An unruptured ectopic pregnancy is one that has not caused any bleeding or rupture of the tube. Methotrexate is used for this condition, as it can dissolve the pregnancy tissue and prevent further growth and complications.
Methotrexate is given as an injection and works by inhibiting folic acid metabolism, which is essential for cell division.
Methotrexate is only suitable for patients who have stable vital signs, low levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and no fetal heartbeat or cardiac activity detected by ultrasound.
Choice D) Complete hydatidiform mole: This is not the correct obstetric complication for methotrexate treatment. A complete hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease in which there is an abnormal proliferation of placental tissue without any fetal development. Methotrexate is not used for this condition, as it can cause resistance and recurrence. The usual treatment option for a complete hydatidiform mole is suction curettage, which removes the molar tissue from the uterus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A) "Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay." is incorrect because this is not a helpful or informative response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not explain what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, why it is there, or how long it will last. It also does not address the father's concern or curiosity, and may make him feel dismissed or ignored. Therefore, this response is inadequate and inappropriate.
Choice B) "That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal." is correct because this is a clear and accurate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response explains what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Meconium is a substance that consists of amniotic fluid, mucus, bile, and other waste products that accumulate in the baby's intestines before birth. It is usually passed within the first 24 to 48 hours after birth, and then replaced by transitional or regular stools. Meconium has a dark green or black color and a thick, sticky consistency. It does not have any odor or bacteria. It is normal and harmless for most babies, unless they inhale it during delivery, which can cause breathing problems or infection. Therefore, this response reassures and educates the father about his baby's condition.
Choice C) "That's transitional stool." is incorrect because this is not a true or complete response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not identify what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Transitional stool is a type of stool that appears after meconium and before regular stools. It usually occurs between the second and fifth day after birth, and then changes to yellow or brown stools. Transitional stool has a greenish-brown color and a loose, seedy consistency. It may have some odor or bacteria. It indicates that the baby's digestive system is maturing and adapting to breast milk or formula. Therefore, this response confuses and misleads the father about his baby's condition.
Choice D) "That means your baby is bleeding internally." is incorrect because this is not a valid or appropriate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not describe what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Bleeding internally means that blood vessels are damaged or ruptured inside the body, causing blood loss and shock. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, clotting disorder, or medication. Bleeding internally can manifest as blood in the stool, urine, vomit, or saliva. However, it does not cause black, sticky stools like meconium. Moreover, this response scares and alarms the father without any evidence or reason. Therefore, this response is false and unethical.
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