A woman is recovering at the gynecologist's office following a first trimester spontaneous abortion. At this time, it is essential for the nurse to check which of the following?
Maternal blood type
Past obstetric history
Maternal varicella titer
Cervical patency
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A) Maternal blood type is correct because this is an essential and relevant information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Spontaneous abortion, also known as miscarriage, is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation. It can be caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities, infections, trauma, or hormonal imbalances. Maternal blood type is the classification of blood based on the presence or absence of antigens and antibodies on the red blood cells and plasma. The most common blood types are A, B, AB, and O, and each can be positive or negative for the Rh factor. Checking maternal blood type can help to identify and prevent Rh incompatibility, which is a condition that occurs when the mother has Rh-negative blood and the fetus has Rh-positive blood. This can cause the mother's immune system to produce antibodies that attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN), which can cause anemia, jaundice, or death. To prevent this, the nurse should administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to the mother within 72 hours after a spontaneous abortion or any event that may cause mixing of maternal and fetal blood. Therefore, this information is vital and appropriate for the nurse to check.
Choice B) Past obstetric history is incorrect because this is not an essential or urgent information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Past obstetric history is the record of previous pregnancies and their outcomes, such as number, duration, complications, or interventions. It can provide useful information for assessing the risk factors and health status of the current pregnancy. However, it does not have any immediate impact or implication for the management of a spontaneous abortion, which is a common and unpredictable event that affects about 10% to 20% of all pregnancies. Therefore, this information can be obtained later or from other sources by the nurse.
Choice C) Maternal varicella titer is incorrect because this is not a relevant or necessary information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Varicella titer is a blood test that measures the level of antibodies against varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which causes chickenpox and shingles. It can indicate whether a person has immunity to VZV or needs vaccination. Checking maternal varicella titer may be important for pregnant women who have not had chickenpox or vaccination before, as VZV infection during pregnancy can cause congenital varicella syndrome (CVS), which can affect the development and function of various organs in the fetus. However, it does not relate to spontaneous abortion, which is not caused by VZV infection or immunity. Therefore, this information is irrelevant and unnecessary for the nurse to check.
Choice D) Cervical patency is incorrect because this is not a reliable or accurate information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Cervical patency means how open or closed the cervix is, which can affect the progress and outcome of labor and delivery. The cervix is usually closed and firm during pregnancy, but it gradually softens, shortens, and dilates as labor approaches. Checking cervical patency can help to determine if labor has started or if there are any complications such as preterm labor or cervical incompetence.
However, it does not indicate if a spontaneous abortion has occurred or not, as the cervix may remain closed or partially open after a miscarriage. Moreover, checking cervical patency can be invasive and uncomfortable for the woman who has had a spontaneous abortion, and it may increase the risk of infection or bleeding. Therefore, this information should be checked only when indicated by the physician and with caution by the nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A) Newborns are abdominal breathers is incorrect because this is not a reason why the respiratory rate should be counted for a complete minute, but rather a characteristic of how newborns breathe. Abdominal breathing means that the diaphragm and the abdominal muscles are the main muscles used for breathing, rather than the chest muscles. Newborns are abdominal breathers because their chest wall is more compliant and less stable than adults, and their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. Abdominal breathing does not affect the accuracy or duration of measuring the respiratory rate, as long as the abdomen is visible and palpable. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Activity will increase the respiratory rate is incorrect because this is not a reason why the respiratory rate should be counted for a complete minute, but rather a factor that can influence the respiratory rate. Activity means any physical or mental exertion that requires more oxygen and energy from the body. Activity can increase the respiratory rate, as well as the heart rate and blood pressure, to meet the increased oxygen demand and carbon dioxide removal. However, activity does not affect the accuracy or duration of measuring the respiratory rate, as long as the newborn is calm and resting during the measurement. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice C) The rate and rhythm of breath are irregular in newborns is correct because this is a reason why the respiratory rate should be counted for a complete minute. The rate and rhythm of breath refer to how fast and how regularly one breathes. Newborns have an irregular rate and rhythm of breath, which means that they breathe at different speeds and intervals, sometimes pausing for a few seconds between breaths. This is normal and harmless for newborns, as long as they do not stop breathing for more than 20 seconds or show signs of distress. However, it can make it difficult to measure the respiratory rate accurately, as counting for a shorter period may not reflect the true average rate. Therefore, counting for a complete minute can ensure a more reliable measurement. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
Choice D) Newborns do not expand their lungs fully with each respiration is incorrect because this is not a reason why the respiratory rate should be counted for a complete minute, but rather a feature of how newborns breathe.
Lung expansion means how much air one inhales and exhales with each breath. Newborns do not expand their lungs fully with each respiration, because they have smaller lung volumes and capacities than adults, and they breathe more shallowly and rapidly. However, lung expansion does not affect the accuracy or duration of measuring the respiratory rate, as long as the chest or abdomen movement is visible and palpable. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice a) Breasts firm and tender is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of breast engorgement, which is a common problem in the first few weeks of breastfeeding. Breast engorgement occurs when thE breasts become overfilled with milk, causing them to feel hard, swollen, painful, and warm. It can be prevented or relieved by frequent and effective breastfeeding, applying warm or cold compresses, massaging the breasts, expressing some milk, and wearing a supportive bra.
Choice b) Episiotomy slightly red and puffy is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of inflammation or infection of the perineal wound. An episiotomy is a surgical cut made in the perineum (the area between the vagina and the anus) to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery. It can take several weeks to heal and may cause pain, swelling, bruising, bleeding, or discharge. It can be cared for by keeping the area clean and dry, applying ice packs or witch hazel pads, taking painkillers or sitz baths, and avoiding constipation or straining.
Choice c) Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable is correct because this is a sign of normal involution, which is the process of the uterus returning to its pre-pregnancy size and shape after delivery. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be felt through the abdomen. Immediately after delivery, the fundus is about the size of a grapefruit and can be felt at or above the umbilicus (the navel). It gradually descends about one fingerbreadth per day until it reaches the level of the symphysis pubis (the joint where the two pubic bones meet) by about 10 days postpartum. By 14 days postpartum, the fundus should be below the symphysis and not palpable.
Choice d) Moderate bright red lochial flow is incorrect because this is not a sign of normal involution, but rather a sign of excessive or prolonged bleeding after delivery. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that consists of blood, mucus, and tissue from the lining of the uterus. It changes in color and amount over time, from red to pink to brown to yellow to white. The normal lochia flow should be scant to moderate in amount, dark red to brown in color, and last for about 4 to 6 weeks postpartum. A moderate bright red lochial flow on day 14 postpartum may indicate that the uterus is not contracting well or that there is an infection or retained placental tissue in the uterus.
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