A woman is recovering at the gynecologist's office following a first trimester spontaneous abortion. At this time, it is essential for the nurse to check which of the following?
Maternal blood type
Past obstetric history
Maternal varicella titer
Cervical patency
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A) Maternal blood type is correct because this is an essential and relevant information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Spontaneous abortion, also known as miscarriage, is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks of gestation. It can be caused by various factors such as chromosomal abnormalities, infections, trauma, or hormonal imbalances. Maternal blood type is the classification of blood based on the presence or absence of antigens and antibodies on the red blood cells and plasma. The most common blood types are A, B, AB, and O, and each can be positive or negative for the Rh factor. Checking maternal blood type can help to identify and prevent Rh incompatibility, which is a condition that occurs when the mother has Rh-negative blood and the fetus has Rh-positive blood. This can cause the mother's immune system to produce antibodies that attack the fetal red blood cells, leading to hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN), which can cause anemia, jaundice, or death. To prevent this, the nurse should administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) to the mother within 72 hours after a spontaneous abortion or any event that may cause mixing of maternal and fetal blood. Therefore, this information is vital and appropriate for the nurse to check.
Choice B) Past obstetric history is incorrect because this is not an essential or urgent information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Past obstetric history is the record of previous pregnancies and their outcomes, such as number, duration, complications, or interventions. It can provide useful information for assessing the risk factors and health status of the current pregnancy. However, it does not have any immediate impact or implication for the management of a spontaneous abortion, which is a common and unpredictable event that affects about 10% to 20% of all pregnancies. Therefore, this information can be obtained later or from other sources by the nurse.
Choice C) Maternal varicella titer is incorrect because this is not a relevant or necessary information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Varicella titer is a blood test that measures the level of antibodies against varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which causes chickenpox and shingles. It can indicate whether a person has immunity to VZV or needs vaccination. Checking maternal varicella titer may be important for pregnant women who have not had chickenpox or vaccination before, as VZV infection during pregnancy can cause congenital varicella syndrome (CVS), which can affect the development and function of various organs in the fetus. However, it does not relate to spontaneous abortion, which is not caused by VZV infection or immunity. Therefore, this information is irrelevant and unnecessary for the nurse to check.
Choice D) Cervical patency is incorrect because this is not a reliable or accurate information for the nurse to check for a woman who has had a first trimester spontaneous abortion. Cervical patency means how open or closed the cervix is, which can affect the progress and outcome of labor and delivery. The cervix is usually closed and firm during pregnancy, but it gradually softens, shortens, and dilates as labor approaches. Checking cervical patency can help to determine if labor has started or if there are any complications such as preterm labor or cervical incompetence.
However, it does not indicate if a spontaneous abortion has occurred or not, as the cervix may remain closed or partially open after a miscarriage. Moreover, checking cervical patency can be invasive and uncomfortable for the woman who has had a spontaneous abortion, and it may increase the risk of infection or bleeding. Therefore, this information should be checked only when indicated by the physician and with caution by the nurse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A) Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks: This is a normal weight gain for a pregnant woman and does not indicate preeclampsia.
Choice B) Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day: This is a common symptom of pregnancy and does not necessarily indicate preeclampsia. It can be relieved by elevating the legs and wearing compression stockings.
Choice C) Blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg: This is a mild elevation of blood pressure and does not meet the criteria for preeclampsia, which is defined as a systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher or a diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least four hours apart.
Choice D) Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine: This is a sign of significant proteinuria, which is one of the main features of preeclampsia. Proteinuria is defined as a urinary protein excretion of 300 mg or more in 24 hours or a dipstick reading of 1+ or higher. A dipstick value of 3+ indicates severe proteinuria and requires immediate attention and treatment. This woman has the highest risk of developing complications from preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, placental abruption, or fetal growth restriction . Therefore, she should be seen by the nurse first.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: This is incorrect because preeclampsia is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is not related to abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause headache, blurred vision, epigastric pain, or seizures.
Choice B: This is incorrect because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and life-threatening complication that occurs when amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and triggers an allergic reaction. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur during labor, delivery, or shortly after birth. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause respiratory distress, hypotension, cardiac arrest, or disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Choice C: This is the correct answer because disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition in which the blood clotting system is activated abnormally, leading to excessive clot formation and consumption of clotting factors and platelets. This results in bleeding from various sites, such as the IV site, gums, nose, or vagina. DIC is a common complication of abruptio placentae, as the release of thromboplastin from the placenta triggers the clotting cascade. DIC can also cause organ failure, shock, or death if not treated promptly.
Choice D: This is incorrect because puerperal infection, also known as postpartum infection, is a bacterial infection that affects the uterus, vagina, bladder, or wound site after childbirth. It is not related to abruptio placentae, but it may occur due to prolonged labor, cesarean delivery, retained placenta, or poor hygiene. Puerperal infection does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV site, but it may cause fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
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