What is the result of hypothermia in the newborn?
Decreased metabolic rate
Decreased oxygen demands
Shivering to generate heat
Increased glucose demands
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A) Decreased metabolic rate is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a cause of it. Metabolic rate is the speed at which the body uses energy to perform its functions. Newborns have a high metabolic rate, which helps them to maintain a normal body temperature of 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F to 99.5°F). However, some factors can lower the metabolic rate of newborns, such as prematurity, low birth weight, infection, or hypoglycemia. A low metabolic rate can make the newborn more susceptible to heat loss and hypothermia, which is a condition that occurs when the body temperature drops below 36°C (96.8°F). Therefore, this response is inaccurate and misleading.
Choice B) Decreased oxygen demands is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a consequence of it. Oxygen demand is the amount of oxygen that the body needs to function properly.
Newborns have a high oxygen demand, which helps them to support their growth and development. However, some factors can decrease the oxygen demand of newborns, such as hypothermia, sedation, or asphyxia. A low oxygen demand can impair the oxygen delivery and utilization by the tissues and organs, leading to hypoxia, acidosis, or organ failure. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice C) Shivering to generate heat is incorrect because this is not a result of hypothermia in the newborn, but rather a mechanism that is absent in them. Shivering is an involuntary contraction of the muscles that produces heat and raises the body temperature. It is a common response to cold exposure in adults and older children, but not in newborns. Newborns do not have the ability to shiver, as their muscles are immature and lack glycogen stores.
Instead, they rely on other methods to generate heat, such as non-shivering thermogenesis, which involves burning brown fat in certain areas of the body. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice D) Increased glucose demands is correct because this is a result of hypothermia in the newborn that can cause complications. Glucose demand is the amount of glucose that the body needs to produce energy and maintain its functions. Newborns have a high glucose demand, which helps them to support their metabolic rate and thermoregulation. However, some factors can increase the glucose demand of newborns, such as hypothermia, stress, or infection. A high glucose demand can deplete the glucose stores and cause hypoglycemia, which is a low level of glucose in the blood that can lead to seizures, brain damage, or death. Therefore, this response is clear and accurate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice a) 100 to 120 is incorrect because this is too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. The heart rate of a newborn is influenced by factors such as gestational age, activity level, temperature, and health status. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which reflects their high metabolic rate and oxygen demand. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice b) 120 to 160 is correct because this is the normal range for a full-term, quiet, alert newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is the best way to measure the heart rate of a newborn, as it reflects the actual contractions of the heart. The apical pulse can be auscultated at the fourth intercostal space on the left side of the chest, just below the nipple line. The nurse should count the apical pulse for a full minute, as it may vary with the respiratory cycle.
Choice c) 80 to 100 is incorrect because this is also too low for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is higher than that of an adult or an older child. A heart rate below 100 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, which can be caused by hypoxia, hypothermia, or cardiac problems.
Choice d) 150 to 180 is incorrect because this is too high for a normal newborn's heart rate. A full-term, quiet, alert newborn should have a heart rate between 120 and 160 beats per minute, which is lower than that of a preterm or a crying newborn. A heart rate above 160 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by fever, infection, anemia, or hyperthyroidism.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today