A first-time father is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. He asks the nurse, "What is this black, sticky stuff in her diaper?" The nurse's best response is:
"Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay."
"That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal."
"That's transitional stool."
"That means your baby is bleeding internally."
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A) "Oh, don't worry about that. It's okay." is incorrect because this is not a helpful or informative response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not explain what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, why it is there, or how long it will last. It also does not address the father's concern or curiosity, and may make him feel dismissed or ignored. Therefore, this response is inadequate and inappropriate.
Choice B) "That's meconium, which is your baby's first stool. It's normal." is correct because this is a clear and accurate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response explains what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Meconium is a substance that consists of amniotic fluid, mucus, bile, and other waste products that accumulate in the baby's intestines before birth. It is usually passed within the first 24 to 48 hours after birth, and then replaced by transitional or regular stools. Meconium has a dark green or black color and a thick, sticky consistency. It does not have any odor or bacteria. It is normal and harmless for most babies, unless they inhale it during delivery, which can cause breathing problems or infection. Therefore, this response reassures and educates the father about his baby's condition.
Choice C) "That's transitional stool." is incorrect because this is not a true or complete response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not identify what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Transitional stool is a type of stool that appears after meconium and before regular stools. It usually occurs between the second and fifth day after birth, and then changes to yellow or brown stools. Transitional stool has a greenish-brown color and a loose, seedy consistency. It may have some odor or bacteria. It indicates that the baby's digestive system is maturing and adapting to breast milk or formula. Therefore, this response confuses and misleads the father about his baby's condition.
Choice D) "That means your baby is bleeding internally." is incorrect because this is not a valid or appropriate response for a first-time father who is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. This response does not describe what the black, sticky stuff in the diaper is, which is meconium. Bleeding internally means that blood vessels are damaged or ruptured inside the body, causing blood loss and shock. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infection, clotting disorder, or medication. Bleeding internally can manifest as blood in the stool, urine, vomit, or saliva. However, it does not cause black, sticky stools like meconium. Moreover, this response scares and alarms the father without any evidence or reason. Therefore, this response is false and unethical.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A) Report of absent breast pain is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the client does not have mastitis or engorgement. Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that causes pain, swelling, redness, and fever. Engorgement is a condition where the breasts become overfilled with milk, causing pain, hardness, and leakage. Both conditions are common in postpartum women who are breastfeeding, but they are not related to methylergonovine or uterine bleeding. Therefore, this response is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice B) Increase in lochia is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the medication was ineffective or that the client has a complication. Lochia is the vaginal discharge that consists of blood, mucus, and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. It usually lasts for about 4 to 6 weeks and gradually decreases in amount and color. Methylergonovine is a medication that helps to control uterine bleeding by improving the tone and contractions of the uterus. An increase in lochia may mean that methylergonovine did not work well or that the client has a problem such as retained placenta, infection, or subinvolution. Therefore, this response is opposite and inaccurate.
Choice C) Increase in blood pressure is incorrect because this is not a finding that indicates that the medication was effective, but rather a finding that indicates that the client has a side effect or a risk factor. Blood pressure is the force of blood against the walls of the arteries. It is measured by two numbers: systolic (the pressure when the heart beats) and diastolic (the pressure when the heart rests). The normal range for blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg or lower. Methylergonovine is a medication that can cause vasoconstriction, which means narrowing of the blood vessels and increasing of the blood pressure. This can lead to complications such as hypertension, stroke, or heart attack. Therefore, this response is adverse and inaccurate.
Choice D) Fundus firm to palpation is correct because this is a finding that indicates that the medication was effective and that the client has a good outcome. The fundus is the upper part of the uterus that can be felt through the abdomen after childbirth. It should be firm, midline, and at or below the level of the navel. A firm fundus means that the uterus has contracted well and stopped bleeding. Methylergonovine is a medication that helps to achieve this by improving the tone and contractions of the uterus. Therefore, this response is positive and accurate.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice a) This could result in profound bleeding is correct because this is the primary reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination involves inserting a gloved finger or a speculum into the vagina and cervix to assess their dilation, effacement, position, and station. This can cause trauma to the cervix or the placenta, which can trigger severe hemorrhage and endanger the mother and the fetus. Therefore, this explanation is accurate and appropriate.
Choice b) This could initiate preterm labor is incorrect because this is not the main reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may stimulate uterine contractions, which can lead to preterm labor and delivery. However, this is not the most serious or likely complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the bleeding risk is much higher and more urgent. Therefore, this explanation is incomplete and misleading.
Choice c) There is an increased risk of introducing infection is incorrect because this is not a specific reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may introduce bacteria or other microorganisms into the vagina or cervix, which can cause infection and inflammation. However, this is a general risk that applies to any pregnant woman who undergoes an internal examination, not just those who have placenta previa. Therefore, this explanation is irrelevant and inaccurate.
Choice d) There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes is incorrect because this is not a relevant reason why an internal examination should be avoided for a client who has placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers part or all of the cervix, preventing normal delivery. An internal examination may cause rupture of the membranes, which are the sacs that contain the amniotic fluid and the fetus. However, this is not a significant or common complication of an internal examination for a client who has placenta previa, as the membranes are usually located above or away from the placenta and cervix. Therefore, this explanation is improbable and inaccurate.
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