A school-aged patient was recently diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. What symptom did the patient’s parents most likely report?

The patient urinates only once or twice a day.

The patient gained 10 lb (4.5 kg) within a month.

The patient refuses to eat their favorite meals at home.

The patient has been drinking more fluids than usual.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale
Urinating only once or twice a day is not a typical symptom of type I diabetes mellitus. In fact, frequent urination is a common symptom of diabetes.
Choice B rationale
Rapid weight gain is not typically associated with type I diabetes mellitus. On the contrary, unexplained weight loss is a common symptom.
Choice C rationale
Refusing to eat favorite meals is not a typical symptom of type I diabetes mellitus. Changes in appetite can occur in various conditions, but they are not specific to diabetes.
Choice D rationale
Drinking more fluids than usual, also known as polydipsia, is a common symptom of type I diabetes mellitus. This is often accompanied by polyuria (frequent urination) due to high blood sugar levels.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale
Moon facies, characterized by a round face, is a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. However, it is not the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider in this context.
Choice B rationale
Abdominal striae, or stretch marks on the abdomen, can also be a side effect of long-term use of prednisone. While it may be a concern for some patients due to cosmetic reasons, it is not the most critical symptom to report in this case.
Choice C rationale
Gastric irritation is a common side effect of prednisone and can lead to more serious complications such as gastric ulcers if not addressed promptly. Therefore, it is the most important symptom for the client to report to the healthcare provider.
Choice D rationale
Rapid weight gain can be a side effect of prednisone use. While it is important to monitor weight while on this medication, it is not the most critical symptom to report in comparison to gastric irritation.

A. Reassure that this can be a normal post-surgical sensation. B. Guide in moving the unaffected limb to override the sensation being experienced. C. Explain that the sensations of tingling and pain are not real. D. Affirm that a prosthetic with physical therapy will gradually improve the symptoms.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale
While it’s true that phantom limb pain can be a normal post-surgical sensation, simply reassuring the patient doesn’t address the pain they’re experiencing.
Choice B rationale
Guiding in moving the unaffected limb to override the sensation being experienced is not a recommended intervention for phantom limb pain. Phantom limb pain is a complex phenomenon that is not simply overridden by movement of other body parts.

Choice C rationale
Explaining that the sensations of tingling and pain are not real may invalidate the patient’s experience. Phantom limb pain is a real phenomenon experienced by many amputees. It’s not just a sensation; it’s a type of neuropathic pain that can be severe and debilitating.
Choice D rationale
Affirming that a prosthetic with physical therapy will gradually improve the symptoms is the best non-pharmacological intervention among the choices. Physical therapy, including mirror therapy and other desensitization techniques, can help manage phantom limb pain. The use of a prosthetic can help the patient regain function and mobility, which can also improve their overall well-being and potentially reduce the perception of phantom limb pain.

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A school-aged patient was recently diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus. What symptom did the patient’s parents most likely report?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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