A patient from a long-term care facility is admitted to the hospital with a sacral pressure injury. The base of the wound involves subcutaneous tissue. How should the nurse classify this pressure injury?
Stage 2
Stage 1
Stage 3
Stage 4
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis. The wound bed is viable, pink or red, and moist, and may also present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. Since the wound involves subcutaneous tissue, it exceeds the criteria for Stage 2.
Choice B reason: Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. While the skin is still intact, it may appear red and not lighten when pressed. Given the description of a wound involving subcutaneous tissue, Stage 1 is not appropriate.
Choice C reason: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness loss of skin, where adipose (fat) is visible in the ulcer and granulation tissue and epibole (rolled wound edges) are often present. Slough and/or eschar may be visible, but the depth of tissue damage varies by anatomical location. This aligns with the wound involving subcutaneous tissue.
Choice D reason: Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone. While the wound described involves subcutaneous tissue, there is no mention of deeper tissue involvement, excluding Stage 4 classification.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D,A,B,C
Explanation
Choice D reason: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the first intervention the nurse should perform. This position helps lower the patient's blood pressure by promoting venous pooling in the lower extremities and reducing the return of blood to the heart. It also aids in better breathing and overall comfort.
Choice A reason: Checking the blood pressure is crucial in this situation to confirm if the patient is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure. This step helps in assessing the severity of the condition and guiding subsequent interventions.
Choice B reason: Obtaining a bladder scan is important because a full bladder is a common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia. By identifying and addressing the cause of the distension, the nurse can help alleviate the symptoms and prevent further complications.
Choice C reason: Notifying the doctor is a critical step, as autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that requires prompt medical intervention. The healthcare provider can give additional orders and may administer medication to control the patient's blood pressure and relieve symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Upper GI bleeding is not a direct cause of right heart failure (cor pulmonale). While severe GI bleeding can lead to other complications such as anemia or shock, it does not typically result in cor pulmonale.
Choice B reason: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a primary cause of cor pulmonale. COPD leads to chronic hypoxia, which increases pressure in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension). The right ventricle of the heart must work harder to pump blood through these high-pressure arteries, eventually leading to right heart failure.
Choice C reason: Liver failure can lead to various systemic complications such as fluid imbalance and electrolyte disturbances, but it is not a direct cause of right heart failure (cor pulmonale). Cor pulmonale is specifically related to pulmonary conditions that increase right ventricular workload.
Choice D reason: Renal failure, while serious and capable of causing cardiovascular complications due to fluid overload and hypertension, is not typically linked to the development of cor pulmonale. The primary cause of cor pulmonale is chronic lung disease like COPD, which directly affects the pulmonary vasculature.
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