A patient from a long-term care facility is admitted to the hospital with a sacral pressure injury. The base of the wound involves subcutaneous tissue. How should the nurse classify this pressure injury?
Stage 2
Stage 1
Stage 3
Stage 4
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis. The wound bed is viable, pink or red, and moist, and may also present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. Since the wound involves subcutaneous tissue, it exceeds the criteria for Stage 2.
Choice B reason: Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. While the skin is still intact, it may appear red and not lighten when pressed. Given the description of a wound involving subcutaneous tissue, Stage 1 is not appropriate.
Choice C reason: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness loss of skin, where adipose (fat) is visible in the ulcer and granulation tissue and epibole (rolled wound edges) are often present. Slough and/or eschar may be visible, but the depth of tissue damage varies by anatomical location. This aligns with the wound involving subcutaneous tissue.
Choice D reason: Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone. While the wound described involves subcutaneous tissue, there is no mention of deeper tissue involvement, excluding Stage 4 classification.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Offering high-calorie protein snacks between meals and at bedtime is appropriate for a patient with COPD who is losing weight and eating very little. These snacks can help meet their nutritional needs and provide the extra calories and protein necessary to prevent muscle wasting and support overall health.
Choice B reason: While increasing the intake of whole grains and vegetables is generally healthy, it may not be the priority for a patient who has lost significant weight and needs to focus on higher-calorie, nutrient-dense foods. The primary goal is to address the calorie and protein deficit first.
Choice C reason: Encouraging rest before meals is beneficial as it helps conserve energy for eating. Patients with COPD often experience fatigue, which can reduce their appetite and ability to eat. Resting before meals can help them feel more energetic and better able to consume their meals.
Choice D reason: Providing a large glass of juice with each meal is not ideal for increasing calorie and protein intake. While juice can provide some calories and nutrients, it is not a good source of protein. Additionally, large volumes of liquid can create a feeling of fullness, reducing the patient's appetite for nutrient-dense foods.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning as it is on the lower end of normal and can indicate dehydration or impaired renal function. However, in this context, it is less immediately alarming compared to severely low blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Blood pressure of 90/40 is critically low and indicates hypotension, which can be a sign of severe dehydration or shock, especially in a patient with ongoing nausea and vomiting. This requires immediate attention and intervention to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications.
Choice C reason: An infiltrated IV site is a problem that needs to be addressed to ensure proper administration of fluids and medications. However, it is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension.
Choice D reason: Oral fluid intake of 100 mL for 8 hours is inadequate, suggesting that the patient may be dehydrated. While concerning, it is not as acutely critical as low blood pressure, which directly affects perfusion and organ function.
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