A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Take one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating.
Discard any tablets you do not use every 6 months.
Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle.
Place the tablet between your cheek and gum to dissolve.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle. Rationales: Choice A rationale: Taking one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin is used to relieve acute angina attacks and is taken as needed rather than on a fixed schedule. Choice B rationale: Discarding any tablets not used every 6 months is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be replaced every 6 months to ensure potency, but this is not the main teaching point for safe storage. Choice C rationale: Keeping the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle is correct. Nitroglycerin tablets are sensitive to light and moisture, and the original glass bottle protects them from these elements, ensuring their effectiveness. Choice D rationale: Placing the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be placed under the tongue where they dissolve and are absorbed quickly into the bloodstream for rapid relief of angina symptoms
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because a weight gain of 2.5 kg (5 Ib) in 2 days indicates a worsening of heart failure and fluid retention, which may require an adjustment of the diuretic dose or other medications.
The provider should be informed of this change as soon as possible to prevent further complications.
Choice A is wrong because teaching the client about foods low in sodium is not the first action the nurse should take.
While a low-sodium diet is important for heart failure patients, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not address the immediate problem of fluid overload.
Choice B is wrong because determining medication adherence by the client is not the first action the nurse should take.
While it is important to assess if the client is taking furosemide as prescribed, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not rule out other causes of fluid retention, such as renal impairment or disease progression.
Choice C is wrong because encouraging the client to dangle the legs while sitting in a chair is not the first action the nurse should take.
While this may help reduce edema in the lower extremities, it does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload and it may worsen pulmonary congestion by increasing venous return to the heart.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
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