A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Take one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating.
Discard any tablets you do not use every 6 months.
Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle.
Place the tablet between your cheek and gum to dissolve.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle. Rationales: Choice A rationale: Taking one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin is used to relieve acute angina attacks and is taken as needed rather than on a fixed schedule. Choice B rationale: Discarding any tablets not used every 6 months is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be replaced every 6 months to ensure potency, but this is not the main teaching point for safe storage. Choice C rationale: Keeping the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle is correct. Nitroglycerin tablets are sensitive to light and moisture, and the original glass bottle protects them from these elements, ensuring their effectiveness. Choice D rationale: Placing the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be placed under the tongue where they dissolve and are absorbed quickly into the bloodstream for rapid relief of angina symptoms
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Pruritus is a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion. It is caused by the release of histamine from mast cells in the skin. Pruritus can be treated with antihistamines or opioid antagonists. Choice A is wrong because gastric bleeding is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Gastric bleeding can occur due to peptic ulcer disease, nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants.
Choice C is wrong because cough is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Cough can be caused by respiratory infections, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice D is wrong because tachypnea is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Tachypnea can be caused by hypoxia, anxiety, pain, or fever. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by bradypnea, not tachypnea.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is:
d. Apply a warm, moist compress.
Here's why the other options are not recommended:
- a. Initiate a new IV distal to the initial site:This is not the first course of action. While starting a new IV might be necessary eventually, it's crucial to address the issue at the current site first.
- b. Slow the IV solution rate:Slowing the rate doesn't directly address the coolness and edema, which indicate potential infiltration or extravasation.
- c. Maintain the extremity below the level of the heart:This action would actually worsen the edema by promoting fluid accumulation at the site.
Applying a warm, moist compress can help promote absorption of any leaked fluid and improve circulation at the site. However, it's important to remember that this is just one step in the process. The nurse should also:
- Stop the IV infusion.
- Assess the extent of the infiltration or extravasation.
- Document the findings.
- Elevate the affected extremity.
- Consult with a physician for further instructions and potential treatment.
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