A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Tinnitus.
Insomnia.
Orthostatic hypotension.
Fluid retention.
The Correct Answer is D
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.
Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.
Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.
Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
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