A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Tinnitus.

Insomnia.

Orthostatic hypotension.

Fluid retention.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.

Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The client should stay upright for at least 15 minutes after taking ferrous gluconate to prevent oesophagal irritation. Choice B is wrong because taking an antacid with ferrous gluconate can decrease its absorption and effectiveness.

Choice C is wrong because taking ferrous gluconate with milk can also reduce its absorption and cause gastrointestinal distress.

Choice D is wrong because black stools are a common and harmless side effect of ferrous gluconate and do not indicate a need to notify the provider. Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anaemia, a condition where the body does not have enough red blood cells to carry oxygen to the tissues.

Iron is an essential component of haemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood.

A. Decreased blood pressure. B. Decreased nausea. C. Increased respiratory rate. D. Increased pain relief.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.

Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.

Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.

Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for ferrous gluconate. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine. The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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