A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Tinnitus.
Insomnia.
Orthostatic hypotension.
Fluid retention.
The Correct Answer is D
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because it uses the full name of the drug, the exact dose, the route of administration, the frequency, and the indication for use. It also avoids any abbreviations that could be confused with other drugs or measurements.
Choice B is wrong because MS is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate which could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because MSO4 is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate that could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because 6.0 mg could be misread as 60 mg and lead to a tenfold overdose.
Normal ranges for morphine dosage depend on the route of administration, the indication, and the patient’s tolerance and response.
For acute pain, the usual oral dose is 10 to 30 mg every 4 hours as needed. For chronic pain, the usual oral dose is 15 to 30 mg every 8 to 12 hours as needed.
For intravenous (IV) administration, the usual dose is 2.5 to 15 mg every 4 hours as needed.
The morphine equivalent daily dose (MEDD) is a concept that attempts to establish an equivalency in terms of dose when comparing any opioid to morphine.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because the umbilicus is a potential site of infection and should be avoided when administering subcutaneous heparin.
Choice B is wrong because massaging the site after administering the medication can cause bruising and hematoma formation.
Choice C is wrong because a 21-gauge needle is too large for subcutaneous injection and can cause tissue trauma and bleeding.
A smaller needle, such as 25- or 27-gauge, should be used.
Choice D is wrong because aspirating before injecting the medication can increase the risk of hematoma formation and is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin.
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