A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?

Store the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system.

Dispose of the remaining medication while another nurse observes.

Return the remaining medication to the facility’s pharmacy.

Place the remaining half of the pill in the unit-dose package.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

This is because hydromorphone is a controlled substance and any unused portion should be discarded in the presence of a witness. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

Choice A is wrong because storing the remaining half of the pill in the automated medication dispensing system could lead to errors in dosage or diversion of the drug.

Choice C is wrong because returning the remaining medication to the facility’s pharmacy is not a recommended practice for controlled substances and could also result in errors or diversion.

Choice D is wrong because placing the remaining half of the pill in the unit-dose package could compromise the integrity and stability of the medication and expose it to environmental factors.

Normal ranges for hydromorphone are not applicable as it is a synthetic opioid analgesic that does not have a therapeutic level.

However, some factors that may affect its pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics are age, weight, renal function, liver function, genetic polymorphisms, and drug interactions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.

An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.

Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.

Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.

A. Bradycardia. B. Red man syndrome. C. Hypotension. D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

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A nurse is administering 4 mg of hydromorphone to a client by mouth every 4 hr. The medication is provided as hydromorphone 8 mg per tablet. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to take?

Nursing Test Bank

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