A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for a client.
Which of the following sites should the nurse use to place the peripheral IV catheter?
Dominant antecubital basilic vein.
Nondominant dorsal venous arch.
Dominant distal dorsal vein.
Nondominant forearm basilic vein
The Correct Answer is D
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client should stay upright for at least 15 minutes after taking ferrous gluconate to prevent oesophagal irritation. Choice B is wrong because taking an antacid with ferrous gluconate can decrease its absorption and effectiveness.
Choice C is wrong because taking ferrous gluconate with milk can also reduce its absorption and cause gastrointestinal distress.
Choice D is wrong because black stools are a common and harmless side effect of ferrous gluconate and do not indicate a need to notify the provider. Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplement used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anaemia, a condition where the body does not have enough red blood cells to carry oxygen to the tissues.
Iron is an essential component of haemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
