A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia.
Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Acetylcysteine.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypermagnesemia because it can help calm some symptoms such as impaired breathing, irregular heartbeat, and hypotension. Calcium also helps normalize the neuromuscular function that is affected by excess magnesium.
Choice B. Acetylcysteine is wrong because it is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and prevent kidney damage from contrast dye.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, a class of sedative drugs.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.7 to 2.3 mg/dL or 0.7 to 1.1 mmol/L. Hypermagnesemia is defined as a magnesium level above 2.6 mg/dL or 1.5 mmol/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become thin and weak, increasing the risk of fractures.
Raloxifene belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), which mimic the effects of estrogen on bone density. Choice B is wrong because raloxifene may increase the risk of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. DVT can cause pain, swelling, and redness in the affected limb, and can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE), a blood clot in the lung.
Raloxifene should not be used by people who have or had DVT or PE. Choice C is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infection (UTI), an infection that affects the bladder, kidneys, or ureters. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning or pain when urinating, frequent or urgent urination, blood in the urine, or fever.
UTI is usually treated with antibiotics.
Choice D is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
Thyroid hormone regulates the body’s metabolism, growth, and development. Hypothyroidism can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, or depression.
Hypothyroidism is usually treated with synthetic thyroid hormone replacement.
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