A nurse is assessing a client who has hypermagnesemia.
Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
Calcium gluconate.
Acetylcysteine.
Flumazenil.
Protamine sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Calcium gluconate is used to treat hypermagnesemia because it can help calm some symptoms such as impaired breathing, irregular heartbeat, and hypotension. Calcium also helps normalize the neuromuscular function that is affected by excess magnesium.
Choice B. Acetylcysteine is wrong because it is used to treat acetaminophen overdose and prevent kidney damage from contrast dye.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice C. Flumazenil is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, a class of sedative drugs.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Choice D. Protamine sulfate is wrong because it is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant drug.
It has no role in treating hypermagnesemia.
Normal ranges for magnesium are 1.7 to 2.3 mg/dL or 0.7 to 1.1 mmol/L. Hypermagnesemia is defined as a magnesium level above 2.6 mg/dL or 1.5 mmol/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Albumin is a protein that helps maintain fluid balance in the body by drawing water into the blood vessels. Albumin infusion can increase the blood volume and blood pressure in patients who are in shock due to fluid loss or sepsis.
Choice A is wrong because albumin infusion does not decrease protein levels in the body.
Albumin is a protein itself and adding it to the blood increases the protein concentration.
Choice C is wrong because oxygen saturation of 96% is normal and does not indicate any improvement or deterioration in the patient’s condition.
Choice D is wrong because PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg is low and indicates respiratory alkalosis, which can be caused by hyperventilation, fever, or anxiety. Albumin infusion does not affect PaCO2 levels directly.
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