A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration.
After assessing the client’s respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Administer epinephrine IM.
Replace the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Give diphenhydramine IM.
Elevate the clients legs and feet.
The Correct Answer is A
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine works by reducing the body’s allergic response and improving the breathing and circulation of the client. Epinephrine should be given as soon as possible after the onset of anaphylaxis symptoms, using an auto-injector device if available.
Choice B is wrong because replacing the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Normal saline can help maintain the blood pressure and hydration of the client, but it does not reverse the allergic reaction or improve the breathing of the client. Normal saline can be given after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.
Choice C is wrong because giving diphenhydramine IM is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can help relieve some of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as itching and hives, but it works too slowly and does not address the more serious effects of anaphylaxis on the breathing and circulation of the client. Diphenhydramine can be given after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.
Choice D is wrong because elevating the client's legs and feet is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Elevating the legs and feet can help increase the blood flow to the vital organs, but it does not reverse the allergic reaction or improve the breathing of the client. Elevating the legs and feet can be done after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
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