A nurse is teaching a client who has pernicious anemia to self-administer nasal cyanocobalamin.
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Plan to self-administer this medication for the next 6 months.
Administer the medication into one nostril once per week.
Lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication.
Use a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication if you have a stuffy nose.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the recommended dosage for cyanocobalamin nasal spray for pernicious anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency. Cyanocobalamin nasal gel is used to prevent a lack of vitamin B12 that may be caused by various factors.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment depends on the individual’s response and blood levels of vitamin B. Some people may need to use this medication for longer than 6 months.
Choice C is wrong because there is no need to lie down for 1 hour after administering the medication.
This may cause nasal irritation or drainage.
Choice D is wrong because using a nasal decongestant 15 minutes before the medication may interfere with the absorption of cyanocobalamin. If you have a stuffy nose, you should talk to your doctor about alternative ways to take vitamin B.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
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