A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Fentanyl transmucosal.
Lidocaine patch.
Morphine tablet.
Naloxone IV.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.
Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.
Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.
Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.
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