A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Fentanyl transmucosal.
Lidocaine patch.
Morphine tablet.
Naloxone IV.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a.While weight changes can be concerning, they are not typically life-threatening and can occur as a common side effect of antidepressants, including citalopram. Monitoring is important, but it does not require immediate reporting.
b.This is the priority to report because confusion can indicate a serious reaction to the medication, such as serotonin syndrome, especially if it occurs in conjunction with other symptoms like agitation, hallucinations, or rapid heart rate. Confusion can also signal worsening mental status, which is critical for someone with major depression.
c.This refers to teeth grinding, which can occur with certain antidepressants. While it should be monitored and possibly addressed with interventions, it is generally not an immediate concern compared to confusion.
d.Sleep disturbances can be a side effect of citalopram and may need adjustment of treatment or recommendations for sleep hygiene, but they are not as urgent as confusion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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