A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and reports pain 1 hr after administration of prescribed morphine 10 mg IV.
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
Fentanyl transmucosal.
Lidocaine patch.
Morphine tablet.
Naloxone IV.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Distended neck veins are a sign of increased central venous pressure, which can result from fluid volume excess. Fluid volume excess can also cause edema, crackles in the lungs, and increased blood pressure.
Choice A is wrong because decreased bowel sounds are not related to fluid volume excess.
Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ileus, obstruction, or peritonitis. Choice B is wrong because bilateral muscle weakness is not a sign of fluid volume excess.
Bilateral muscle weakness can be caused by electrolyte imbalances, neuromuscular disorders, or stroke.
Choice C is wrong because thready pulse is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not excess.
Thready pulse indicates poor perfusion and low cardiac output, which can result from dehydration, hemorrhage, or shock.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because swelling of the feet can be a sign of lithium toxicity, which is a serious condition that can occur when the level of lithium in the blood is too high. Lithium toxicity can cause confusion, irregular heartbeat, muscle weakness, and kidney problems. Therefore, the client should report any signs of lithium toxicity to their provider as soon as possible.
Choice A is wrong because limiting foods containing tyramine is not necessary for clients taking lithium. Tyramine is a substance found in some foods that can interact with certain antidepressants called monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), but not with lithium.
Choice B is wrong because decreasing the daily sodium intake can actually increase the risk of lithium toxicity.
Sodium helps to regulate the amount of lithium in the body, so if the sodium level is low, the lithium level can rise too high.
The client should maintain a normal sodium intake and drink enough fluids while taking lithium.
Choice C is wrong because taking this medication 2 hours before a meal is not required for clients taking lithium.
Lithium can be taken with or without food, but it should be taken at the same time each day to keep a steady level in the blood.
Taking lithium 2 hours before a meal may cause stomach upset, which is a common side effect of lithium.
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