A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Take one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating.
Discard any tablets you do not use every 6 months.
Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle.
Place the tablet between your cheek and gum to dissolve.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle. Rationales: Choice A rationale: Taking one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin is used to relieve acute angina attacks and is taken as needed rather than on a fixed schedule. Choice B rationale: Discarding any tablets not used every 6 months is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be replaced every 6 months to ensure potency, but this is not the main teaching point for safe storage. Choice C rationale: Keeping the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle is correct. Nitroglycerin tablets are sensitive to light and moisture, and the original glass bottle protects them from these elements, ensuring their effectiveness. Choice D rationale: Placing the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be placed under the tongue where they dissolve and are absorbed quickly into the bloodstream for rapid relief of angina symptoms
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Distended neck veins are a sign of increased central venous pressure, which can result from fluid volume excess. Fluid volume excess can also cause edema, crackles in the lungs, and increased blood pressure.
Choice A is wrong because decreased bowel sounds are not related to fluid volume excess.
Decreased bowel sounds can indicate ileus, obstruction, or peritonitis. Choice B is wrong because bilateral muscle weakness is not a sign of fluid volume excess.
Bilateral muscle weakness can be caused by electrolyte imbalances, neuromuscular disorders, or stroke.
Choice C is wrong because thready pulse is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not excess.
Thready pulse indicates poor perfusion and low cardiac output, which can result from dehydration, hemorrhage, or shock.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
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