A nurse is teaching a client who has angina about a new prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Take one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating.
Discard any tablets you do not use every 6 months.
Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle.
Place the tablet between your cheek and gum to dissolve.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. Keep the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle. Rationales: Choice A rationale: Taking one tablet each morning 30 minutes prior to eating is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin is used to relieve acute angina attacks and is taken as needed rather than on a fixed schedule. Choice B rationale: Discarding any tablets not used every 6 months is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be replaced every 6 months to ensure potency, but this is not the main teaching point for safe storage. Choice C rationale: Keeping the tablets at room temperature in their original glass bottle is correct. Nitroglycerin tablets are sensitive to light and moisture, and the original glass bottle protects them from these elements, ensuring their effectiveness. Choice D rationale: Placing the tablet between the cheek and gum to dissolve is incorrect. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be placed under the tongue where they dissolve and are absorbed quickly into the bloodstream for rapid relief of angina symptoms
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
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