A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?
Increased pulse rate.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased temperature.
Decreased respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is A
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.
Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol.
Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol.
Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.
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