A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Bradycardia.

Red man syndrome.

Hypotension.

Hypoglycemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Epinephrine (adrenaline) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Epinephrine works by reducing the body’s allergic response and improving the breathing and circulation of the client. Epinephrine should be given as soon as possible after the onset of anaphylaxis symptoms, using an auto-injector device if available.

Choice B is wrong because replacing the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Normal saline can help maintain the blood pressure and hydration of the client, but it does not reverse the allergic reaction or improve the breathing of the client. Normal saline can be given after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.

Choice C is wrong because giving diphenhydramine IM is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that can help relieve some of the symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as itching and hives, but it works too slowly and does not address the more serious effects of anaphylaxis on the breathing and circulation of the client. Diphenhydramine can be given after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.

Choice D is wrong because elevating the client's legs and feet is not enough to treat anaphylaxis. Elevating the legs and feet can help increase the blood flow to the vital organs, but it does not reverse the allergic reaction or improve the breathing of the client. Elevating the legs and feet can be done after epinephrine, but not before or instead of it.

A. Increased pulse rate. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Decreased temperature. D. Decreased respiratory rate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.

Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.

Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.

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A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

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