A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Bradycardia.

Red man syndrome.

Hypotension.

Hypoglycemia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.

Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.

Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.

Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

A. Increased pulse rate. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Decreased temperature. D. Decreased respiratory rate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.

An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.

Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.

Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.

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A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine. The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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