A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
Tinnitus.
Insomnia.
Orthostatic hypotension.
Fluid retention.
The Correct Answer is D
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a.While weight changes can be concerning, they are not typically life-threatening and can occur as a common side effect of antidepressants, including citalopram. Monitoring is important, but it does not require immediate reporting.
b.This is the priority to report because confusion can indicate a serious reaction to the medication, such as serotonin syndrome, especially if it occurs in conjunction with other symptoms like agitation, hallucinations, or rapid heart rate. Confusion can also signal worsening mental status, which is critical for someone with major depression.
c.This refers to teeth grinding, which can occur with certain antidepressants. While it should be monitored and possibly addressed with interventions, it is generally not an immediate concern compared to confusion.
d.Sleep disturbances can be a side effect of citalopram and may need adjustment of treatment or recommendations for sleep hygiene, but they are not as urgent as confusion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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