A nurse is planning care for a client who requires treatment for high cholesterol. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect to administer?

Chlorpromazine.

Colesevelam.

Colchicine.

Cimetidine.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.

Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol.

Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol.

Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

A. Decreased blood pressure. B. Decreased nausea. C. Increased respiratory rate. D. Increased pain relief.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.

Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.

Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.

Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.

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A nurse is planning care for a client who requires treatment for high cholesterol. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse expect to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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