A nurse is reviewing the list of current medications for a client who is to start a new prescription for carbamazepine.
The nurse should identify which of the following medications interacts with carbamazepine?
Beclomethasone.
Estrogen-progestin combination.
Diphenhydramine.
Nicotine transdermal system.
The Correct Answer is B
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. It works by reducing the activity of certain nerve cells in the brain.
Choice A is wrong because beclomethasone is a corticosteroid that is used to treat asthma and allergic rhinitis. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
Choice B is correct because the estrogen-progestin combination is a hormonal contraceptive that is used to prevent pregnancy and regulate menstrual cycles. It interacts with carbamazepine because carbamazepine can increase the breakdown of estrogen and progestin in the body, making them less effective. The nurse should instruct the client to use an alternative or additional method of birth control while taking carbamazepine.
Choice C is wrong because diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that is used to treat allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
Choice D is wrong because the nicotine transdermal system is a nicotine replacement therapy that is used to help people quit smoking. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because a weight gain of 2.5 kg (5 Ib) in 2 days indicates a worsening of heart failure and fluid retention, which may require an adjustment of the diuretic dose or other medications.
The provider should be informed of this change as soon as possible to prevent further complications.
Choice A is wrong because teaching the client about foods low in sodium is not the first action the nurse should take.
While a low-sodium diet is important for heart failure patients, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not address the immediate problem of fluid overload.
Choice B is wrong because determining medication adherence by the client is not the first action the nurse should take.
While it is important to assess if the client is taking furosemide as prescribed, it is not an urgent intervention and it does not rule out other causes of fluid retention, such as renal impairment or disease progression.
Choice C is wrong because encouraging the client to dangle the legs while sitting in a chair is not the first action the nurse should take.
While this may help reduce edema in the lower extremities, it does not address the underlying cause of fluid overload and it may worsen pulmonary congestion by increasing venous return to the heart.
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