A nurse is planning to administer medications to an older adult client who has dysphagia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Administer more than one pill to the client at a time.
Place the medications on the back of the client’s tongue.
Tilt the client’s head back when administering the medications.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should plan to take the following action:
A) Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Mixing the medications with a semisolid food, such as applesauce or pudding, can make it easier for an older adult client with dysphagia to swallow the medications safely. It helps in reducing the risk of choking and aspiration. This approach is typically used for clients who have difficulty swallowing pills.
Options B, C, and D are not recommended for a client with dysphagia:
B) Administering more than one pill at a time can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, which should be avoided.
C) Placing medications on the back of the client's tongue can also lead to difficulty swallowing and an increased risk of aspiration.
D) Tilting the client's head back when administering medications is not recommended as it can lead to aspiration. The head should be kept in a neutral position to support safe swallowing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Metformin is a medication used to lower blood glucose levels in people with type 2 diabetes. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat high blood pressure and heart problems. If the nurse accidentally gives metformin instead of metoprolol, the client may experience hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), which can cause symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, confusion, and loss of consciousness. Therefore, the nurse should check the client’s glucose level and treat hypoglycemia if needed.
Choice A is wrong because HDL (high-density lipoprotein) is a type of cholesterol that is not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Choice B is wrong because thyroid function levels are not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Choice C is wrong because uric acid level is not affected by metformin or metoprolol.
Uric acid is a waste product that can cause gout if it accumulates in the joints. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL two hours after meals.
Normal ranges for HDL are 40 to 60 mg/dL for men and 50 to 60 mg/dL for women.
Normal ranges for thyroid function levels vary depending on the specific test, but generally they are between 0.4 and 4.0 mIU/L for TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), 4.5 to 11.2 mcg/dL for T4 (thyroxine), and 80 to 180 ng/dL for T3 (triiodothyronine).
Normal ranges for uric acid are 3.4 to 7.0 mg/dL for men and 2.4 to 6.0 mg/dL for women.
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