A nurse is planning to administer medications to an older adult client who has dysphagia.
Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Administer more than one pill to the client at a time.
Place the medications on the back of the client’s tongue.
Tilt the client’s head back when administering the medications.
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse should plan to take the following action:
A) Mix the medications with a semisolid food for the client.
Mixing the medications with a semisolid food, such as applesauce or pudding, can make it easier for an older adult client with dysphagia to swallow the medications safely. It helps in reducing the risk of choking and aspiration. This approach is typically used for clients who have difficulty swallowing pills.
Options B, C, and D are not recommended for a client with dysphagia:
B) Administering more than one pill at a time can increase the risk of choking and aspiration, which should be avoided.
C) Placing medications on the back of the client's tongue can also lead to difficulty swallowing and an increased risk of aspiration.
D) Tilting the client's head back when administering medications is not recommended as it can lead to aspiration. The head should be kept in a neutral position to support safe swallowing.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client will need to have blood levels drawn to monitor the therapeutic and toxic levels of theophylline, a bronchodilator that is used to treat symptoms of asthma and other lung conditions. The normal range of theophylline in the blood is 10 to 20 mcg/mL.
Choice A is wrong because the client should not sprinkle the medication in applesauce or any other food. Theophylline is a sustained-release capsule that should be swallowed whole and not crushed or chewed.
Choice B is wrong because the client should avoid caffeine while on this medication, as it can increase the side effects of theophylline, such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and irregular heart rate.
Choice C is wrong because the client should not limit fluid intake while on this medication unless instructed by the doctor.
Fluid intake helps prevent dehydration and kidney problems that can affect theophylline levels in the blood.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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