A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.

Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.

Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.

The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.

Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.

Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.

Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.

Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.

Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.

A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.

Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.

A. Increased pulse rate. B. Increased blood pressure. C. Decreased temperature. D. Decreased respiratory rate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.

Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.

Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.

Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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