A nurse is caring for a client who is to receive potassium replacement. The provider’s prescription reads, “Potassium chloride 30 mEq in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 mL IV over 30 min.” For which of the following reasons should the nurse clarify this prescription with the provider?
The potassium infusion rate is too rapid.
Another formulation of potassium should be given IV.
Potassium chloride should be diluted in dextrose 5% in water.
The client should be treated by giving potassium by IV bolus.
The Correct Answer is A
According to various guidelines12345, the recommended rate of intravenous potassium replacement is 10-20 mEq/h with continuous ECG monitoring. The maximum rate is 40 mEq/h in emergency situations. The prescription given by the provider exceeds this limit and could cause cardiac arrhythmias or hyperkalemia.
Choice B is wrong because potassium chloride is a common and appropriate formulation of potassium for intravenous administration.
Choice C is wrong because potassium chloride should not be diluted in dextrose 5% in water, as this could cause hyperglycemia or osmotic diuresis.
Choice D is wrong because potassium should never be given by IV bolus, as this could cause cardiac arrest or tissue necrosis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a.While weight changes can be concerning, they are not typically life-threatening and can occur as a common side effect of antidepressants, including citalopram. Monitoring is important, but it does not require immediate reporting.
b.This is the priority to report because confusion can indicate a serious reaction to the medication, such as serotonin syndrome, especially if it occurs in conjunction with other symptoms like agitation, hallucinations, or rapid heart rate. Confusion can also signal worsening mental status, which is critical for someone with major depression.
c.This refers to teeth grinding, which can occur with certain antidepressants. While it should be monitored and possibly addressed with interventions, it is generally not an immediate concern compared to confusion.
d.Sleep disturbances can be a side effect of citalopram and may need adjustment of treatment or recommendations for sleep hygiene, but they are not as urgent as confusion.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Gastric bleeding can occur due to peptic ulcer disease, nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants.
Choice C is wrong because cough is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Cough can be caused by respiratory infections, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Choice D is wrong because tachypnea is not a common adverse effect of morphine administered via continuous epidural infusion.
Tachypnea can be caused by hypoxia, anxiety, pain, or fever. Morphine can cause respiratory depression, which is characterized by bradypnea, not tachypnea.
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