A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for a nitroglycerin transdermal patch.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Apply a new patch if you have chest pain.
Discontinue the patch if you experience a headache.
Remove the patch prior to going to bed.
Cover the patch with dry gauze when taking a shower.
The Correct Answer is C
Nitroglycerin transdermal patches are used to prevent episodes of angina (chest pain) in people who have coronary artery disease (narrowing of the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart). They work by relaxing the blood vessels so that the heart does not need to work as hard and therefore does not need as much oxygen.
Choice A is wrong because nitroglycerin transdermal patches cannot be used to treat an attack of angina once it has begun. They can only be used to prevent attacks of angina. If you have chest pain, you should use another form of nitroglycerin, such as sublingual tablets or spray.
Choice B is wrong because headache is a common side effect of nitroglycerin transdermal patches and does not mean that you should stop using them. However, you should tell your doctor if the headaches are severe or do not go away. You may also take acetaminophen to relieve the headache.
Choice D is wrong because you do not need to cover the patch with dry gauze when taking a shower. You may shower while you are wearing a nitroglycerin skin patch. If a patch loosens or falls off, replace it with a fresh one.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
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