A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about medication reconciliation. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to perform medication reconciliation for which of the following clients?
A client who has a referral for social services.
A client who is transported to radiology.
A client who is transferred to a step-down unit.
A client who has a consultation for physical therapy.
The Correct Answer is C
Medication reconciliation is the process of creating the most accurate list possible of all medications a client is taking and comparing that list against the physician’s orders at every transition of care. A client who is transferred to a step-down unit is at risk of medication errors due to changes in the level of care and the prescribing providers. Therefore, medication reconciliation should be performed for this client to prevent adverse drug events.
Choice A is wrong because a referral for social services does not involve a change in the client’s medications or care setting.
Choice B is wrong because transport to radiology is a temporary and short-term movement that does not require medication reconciliation.
Choice D is wrong because a consultation for physical therapy does not affect the client’s medication regimen or orders.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Furosemide is a diuretic that is used to treat heart failure by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. It can cause some side effects, such as increased urination, thirst, dry mouth, headache, dizziness, nausea, and electrolyte imbalance.
Choice A is wrong because BUN (blood urea nitrogen) is a measure of kidney function and a normal range is 7 to 20 mg/dL.
A BUN of 15 mg/dL is not a cause for concern and does not indicate any adverse effect of furosemide.
Choice C is wrong because potassium is an electrolyte that is important for nerve and muscle function and a normal range is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.
Potassium of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range and does not indicate any adverse effect of furosemide. However, furosemide can cause low potassium levels (hypokalemia) in some cases, so the nurse should monitor the client’s potassium levels regularly and advise the client to eat foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, and potatoes.
Choice D is wrong because dizziness upon standing is a common side effect of furosemide and does not require immediate notification of the provider. However, the nurse should instruct the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position to prevent falls and to drink enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
Choice B is correct because difficulty hearing or hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of furosemide that may indicate ototoxicity (damage to the inner ear). This can be irreversible if not treated promptly and may affect the client’s quality of life and safety. The nurse should notify the provider immediately if the client reports difficulty hearing or any other signs of ototoxicity, such as ringing in the ears (tinnitus) or vertigo (a sensation of spinning). The provider may need to adjust the dose of furosemide or switch to another diuretic that is less ototoxic.
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