A nurse is preparing to administer 4,000 units of heparin subcutaneously to a client who has deep-vein thrombosis.
Available is heparin 10,000 units/mL.
How many mL of heparin should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest) tenth.
Use a leading zero if it applies.
Do not use a trailing zero.) mL.
The Correct Answer is ["0.4"]
To calculate the amount of heparin to administer, use the formula:
mL of heparin=units available units ordered×1mL available
Substituting the values given in the question, we get:
mL of heparin=100004000×11=0.4
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.4 mL of heparin.
Normal ranges for heparin therapy vary depending on the condition being treated and the laboratory method used to measure APTT.
A general range is 60 to 80 seconds or 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking beverages while sucking on a nicotine lozenge because this can interfere with the absorption of nicotine and reduce its effectiveness. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B is wrong because chewing nicotine gum for 10 minutes before spitting it out is too short.
The recommended duration is at least 30 minutes to allow enough nicotine to be released and absorbed through the lining of the mouth.
Choice C is wrong because changing the nicotine patch every other day is not frequent enough.
The patch should be changed daily and applied to a different skin site to prevent irritation and ensure a steady dose of nicotine.
Choice D is wrong because administering 2 sprays of nicotine nasal spray in each nostril with each dose is too much.
The recommended dose is one spray per nostril, up to five times per hour or 40 times per day.
Using too much nasal spray can cause side effects such as nasal irritation, sneezing, coughing, headache, or nausea.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
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