A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse.

Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply)

Decreased percentage of body fat.

Multiple health problems.

Increased rate of absorption.

Polypharmacy.

Decreased renal function.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,D,E

Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.

These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.

Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.

In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.

Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.

In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.

Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.

Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.

Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.

Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.

Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.

A. Tinnitus. B. Insomnia. C. Orthostatic hypotension. D. Fluid retention.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.

Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.

In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.

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A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply)

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

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A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse.

Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (Select all that apply)