A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Decreased blood pressure.
Decreased nausea.
Increased respiratory rate.
Increased pain relief.
The Correct Answer is C
Naloxone is a drug that reverses the effects of opioids, such as morphine, by blocking their receptors in the brain. One of the adverse effects of morphine is respiratory depression, which means it slows down breathing and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) or death. Naloxone can restore normal breathing and prevent further harm from opioid overdose. Therefore, an increased respiratory rate is a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because TPN solutions are concentrated and can cause thrombosis of peripheral veins, so a central venous catheter is usually required. TPN should only be used when the intestine is unavailable or unable to absorb nutrients.
Choice A is wrong because a midline catheter is a type of peripheral catheter that can only be used for solutions with low or moderate osmolarity, not for TPN.
Choice C is wrong because subcutaneous administration is not a route for delivering TPN, which requires intravenous infusion.
Choice D is wrong because intraosseous administration is an emergency route for delivering fluids and drugs when intravenous access is not available, not for TPN.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.
Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol.
Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol.
Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.
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