A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Decreased blood pressure.
Decreased nausea.
Increased respiratory rate.
Increased pain relief.
The Correct Answer is C
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin. An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of the immune system to the drug. Other signs and symptoms of penicillin allergy may include skin rash, itching, fever, swelling, shortness of breath, wheezing, runny nose, itchy eyes, and anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a rare but life-threatening condition that affects multiple body systems and requires immediate emergency treatment.
Choice A is wrong because pallor is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Pallor means pale skin and may be caused by other conditions such as anemia or shock.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Bradycardia means slow heart rate and may be caused by other conditions such as heart block or medication side effects.
Choice D is wrong because dyspepsia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Dyspepsia means indigestion and may be caused by other conditions such as gastritis or peptic ulcer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because the umbilicus is a potential site of infection and should be avoided when administering subcutaneous heparin.
Choice B is wrong because massaging the site after administering the medication can cause bruising and hematoma formation.
Choice C is wrong because a 21-gauge needle is too large for subcutaneous injection and can cause tissue trauma and bleeding.
A smaller needle, such as 25- or 27-gauge, should be used.
Choice D is wrong because aspirating before injecting the medication can increase the risk of hematoma formation and is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin.
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