A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Decreased blood pressure.
Decreased nausea.
Increased respiratory rate.
Increased pain relief.
The Correct Answer is C
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because it uses the full name of the drug, the exact dose, the route of administration, the frequency, and the indication for use. It also avoids any abbreviations that could be confused with other drugs or measurements.
Choice B is wrong because MS is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate which could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because MSO4 is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate that could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because 6.0 mg could be misread as 60 mg and lead to a tenfold overdose.
Normal ranges for morphine dosage depend on the route of administration, the indication, and the patient’s tolerance and response.
For acute pain, the usual oral dose is 10 to 30 mg every 4 hours as needed. For chronic pain, the usual oral dose is 15 to 30 mg every 8 to 12 hours as needed.
For intravenous (IV) administration, the usual dose is 2.5 to 15 mg every 4 hours as needed.
The morphine equivalent daily dose (MEDD) is a concept that attempts to establish an equivalency in terms of dose when comparing any opioid to morphine.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a sign of a severe allergic reaction to amoxicillin that can cause difficulty breathing and may be life threatening.
The nurse should stop the medication and call for emergency assistance. Choice B is wrong because nausea is a common side effect of amoxicillin, not an allergic reaction.
Choice C is wrong because insomnia is not related to amoxicillin use. Choice D is wrong because cardiac dysrhythmia is not a typical symptom of an allergic reaction to amoxicillin.
It may be caused by other factors, such as underlying heart disease or electrolyte imbalance.
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