A nurse is teaching a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis about management of medication for the disease.
Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to make?
You should anticipate taking medication to treat your disease for at least the next 3 years.
You will need to undergo tuberculin skin tests every 6 months while taking medication for your disease.
You should report monthly to have your blood drawn to monitor kidney function while taking medication.
You will need to take two or more medications to treat your disease.
The Correct Answer is D
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice Ais wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice Dis wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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