A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an adult client who has a fever and a prescription for acetaminophen.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for receiving this medication?
Hepatitis B vaccine within the last week.
Chronic kidney disease.
Diabetes mellitus.
Alcohol use disorder.
The Correct Answer is D
Acetaminophen is contraindicated in patients with severe hepatic impairment or severe active liver disease1 and should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment or active liver disease. Alcohol use disorder can cause liver damage and increase the risk of acetaminophen toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because hepatitis B vaccine within the last week is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
There is no evidence that acetaminophen interferes with the immune response to the vaccine or causes adverse effects.
Choice B is wrong because chronic kidney disease is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized by the liver and has minimal renal excretion.
However, patients with chronic kidney disease should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
Choice C is wrong because diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen does not affect blood glucose levels or interact with oral antidiabetic drugs.
However, patients with diabetes mellitus should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This site is preferred for peripheral IV catheter placement because it is comfortable, has good blood flow, and has a lower risk of complications than the dominant arm or the antecubital fossa.
Choice A is wrong because the dominant antecubital basilic vein is more prone to dislodgement, thrombosis, and thrombophlebitis due to frequent movement of the elbow joint.
Choice B is wrong because the nondominant dorsal venous arch is a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Choice C is wrong because the dominant distal dorsal vein is also a distal site that may have poor blood flow and higher resistance to infusion. It should be avoided unless there are no other options.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Increased pulse rate.
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
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