A nurse is preparing to administer subcutaneous heparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Insert the needle at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus.
Massage the site after administering the medication.
Use a 21-gauge needle for the injection.
Aspirate before injecting the medication.
The Correct Answer is A
This is because the umbilicus is a potential site of infection and should be avoided when administering subcutaneous heparin.
Choice B is wrong because massaging the site after administering the medication can cause bruising and hematoma formation.
Choice C is wrong because a 21-gauge needle is too large for subcutaneous injection and can cause tissue trauma and bleeding.
A smaller needle, such as 25- or 27-gauge, should be used.
Choice D is wrong because aspirating before injecting the medication can increase the risk of hematoma formation and is not recommended for subcutaneous heparin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin. An allergic reaction is an abnormal response of the immune system to the drug. Other signs and symptoms of penicillin allergy may include skin rash, itching, fever, swelling, shortness of breath, wheezing, runny nose, itchy eyes, and anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a rare but life-threatening condition that affects multiple body systems and requires immediate emergency treatment.
Choice A is wrong because pallor is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Pallor means pale skin and may be caused by other conditions such as anemia or shock.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Bradycardia means slow heart rate and may be caused by other conditions such as heart block or medication side effects.
Choice D is wrong because dyspepsia is not a typical sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin.
Dyspepsia means indigestion and may be caused by other conditions such as gastritis or peptic ulcer.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become thin and weak, increasing the risk of fractures.
Raloxifene belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), which mimic the effects of estrogen on bone density. Choice B is wrong because raloxifene may increase the risk of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. DVT can cause pain, swelling, and redness in the affected limb, and can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE), a blood clot in the lung.
Raloxifene should not be used by people who have or had DVT or PE. Choice C is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infection (UTI), an infection that affects the bladder, kidneys, or ureters. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning or pain when urinating, frequent or urgent urination, blood in the urine, or fever.
UTI is usually treated with antibiotics.
Choice D is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
Thyroid hormone regulates the body’s metabolism, growth, and development. Hypothyroidism can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, or depression.
Hypothyroidism is usually treated with synthetic thyroid hormone replacement.
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