A nurse is teaching a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis about management of medication for the disease.
Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to make?
You should anticipate taking medication to treat your disease for at least the next 3 years.
You will need to undergo tuberculin skin tests every 6 months while taking medication for your disease.
You should report monthly to have your blood drawn to monitor kidney function while taking medication.
You will need to take two or more medications to treat your disease.
The Correct Answer is D
This is because TB is caused by a bacterium that can develop resistance to single-drug therapy, so a combination of drugs is used to prevent or treat drug-resistant strains. Some of the common drugs used for TB are isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide.
Choice A is wrong because the duration of treatment for active TB is usually 6 to 9 months, not 3 years.
Choice B is wrong because tuberculin skin tests are not reliable indicators of disease activity or response to treatment, as they can remain positive for years after successful therapy.
Choice C is wrong because blood tests to monitor kidney function are not routinely required for TB treatment unless the client has a preexisting renal impairment or is taking drugs that are nephrotoxic.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because it uses the full name of the drug, the exact dose, the route of administration, the frequency, and the indication for use. It also avoids any abbreviations that could be confused with other drugs or measurements.
Choice B is wrong because MS is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate which could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice C is wrong because MSO4 is an abbreviation for morphine sulfate that could be mistaken for magnesium sulfate.
Choice D is wrong because 6.0 mg could be misread as 60 mg and lead to a tenfold overdose.
Normal ranges for morphine dosage depend on the route of administration, the indication, and the patient’s tolerance and response.
For acute pain, the usual oral dose is 10 to 30 mg every 4 hours as needed. For chronic pain, the usual oral dose is 15 to 30 mg every 8 to 12 hours as needed.
For intravenous (IV) administration, the usual dose is 2.5 to 15 mg every 4 hours as needed.
The morphine equivalent daily dose (MEDD) is a concept that attempts to establish an equivalency in terms of dose when comparing any opioid to morphine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Pioglitazone is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones, which are used to treat type 2 diabetes by improving insulin sensitivity. One of the common side effects of pioglitazone is edema, which is swelling caused by excess fluid in the body tissues. This can lead to fluid retention and weight gain and may worsen heart failure in some patients.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus, which is ringing or buzzing in the ears, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice B is wrong because insomnia, which is difficulty falling or staying asleep, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
Choice C is wrong because orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when standing up from a sitting or lying position, is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
In fact, pioglitazone may cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) when used with other diabetes medications, which can cause symptoms such as dizziness, sweating, and confusion.
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