A nurse is assessing a client who is taking an osmotic laxative.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of fluid volume deficit?
Oliguria.
Nausea.
Headaches.
Weight gain.
The Correct Answer is A
Osmotic laxatives work by drawing water into the colon to soften the stool and stimulate bowel movements. However, excessive use of osmotic laxatives can cause fluid volume deficit, which is a state of reduced intravascular volume.
One of the signs of fluid volume deficit is oliguria, which means low urine output.
Choice B. Nausea is wrong because nausea is a common side effect of osmotic laxatives, not an indication of fluid volume deficit.
Choice C. Headaches is wrong because headaches are more likely to be caused by dehydration, which is a state of reduced total body water, mostly affecting the intracellular fluid compartment.
Dehydration can result from osmotic laxatives, but it is not the same as fluid volume deficit.
Choice D. Weight gain is wrong because weight gain is not a sign of fluid volume deficit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Drowsiness is a very common adverse effect of paroxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used to treat depression and anxiety. Paroxetine can cause somnolence (sleepiness) in up to 22% of patients who take it. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for this effect and avoid driving or operating machinery until they know how the medication affects them.
Choice A is wrong because tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
Choice B is wrong because alopecia (hair loss) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
Choice C is wrong because peripheral edema (swelling of the limbs) is not a common adverse effect of paroxetine.
It may occur rarely in some patients, but it is not a typical symptom of SSRI use.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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