A nurse is reviewing the medical record of an adult client who has a fever and a prescription for acetaminophen.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for receiving this medication?
Hepatitis B vaccine within the last week.
Chronic kidney disease.
Diabetes mellitus.
Alcohol use disorder.
The Correct Answer is D
Acetaminophen is contraindicated in patients with severe hepatic impairment or severe active liver disease1 and should be used with caution in patients with hepatic impairment or active liver disease. Alcohol use disorder can cause liver damage and increase the risk of acetaminophen toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because hepatitis B vaccine within the last week is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
There is no evidence that acetaminophen interferes with the immune response to the vaccine or causes adverse effects.
Choice B is wrong because chronic kidney disease is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized by the liver and has minimal renal excretion.
However, patients with chronic kidney disease should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
Choice C is wrong because diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for receiving acetaminophen.
Acetaminophen does not affect blood glucose levels or interact with oral antidiabetic drugs.
However, patients with diabetes mellitus should consult their doctor before taking acetaminophen as they may have other conditions that affect its use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
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