A nurse is monitoring for an infusion reaction for a client who is receiving a dose of IV amphotericin B. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an acute infusion reaction?
Pedal edema.
Fever.
Dry cough.
Hyperglycemia.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should advise the client to avoid taking St. John’s Wort with sertraline because it can increase the risk of a rare but serious condition called serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can cause symptoms such as confusion, hallucination, seizure, extreme changes in blood pressure, increased heart rate, fever, excessive sweating, shivering or shaking, blurred vision, muscle spasm or stiffness, tremor, incoordination, stomach cramp, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea.
Choice B. Black cohosh is wrong because it is a herbal supplement that is used to treat menopausal symptoms and has no known interaction with sertraline.
Choice C. Coenzyme Q is wrong because it is a natural substance that is involved in energy production and has no known interaction with sertraline.
Choice D. Ginger root is wrong because it is a spice that is used to treat nausea and has no known interaction with sertraline.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Raloxifene is a medication used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become thin and weak, increasing the risk of fractures.
Raloxifene belongs to a class of drugs called selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), which mimic the effects of estrogen on bone density. Choice B is wrong because raloxifene may increase the risk of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), a type of blood clot that forms in a vein deep in the body. DVT can cause pain, swelling, and redness in the affected limb, and can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE), a blood clot in the lung.
Raloxifene should not be used by people who have or had DVT or PE. Choice C is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat urinary tract infection (UTI), an infection that affects the bladder, kidneys, or ureters. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning or pain when urinating, frequent or urgent urination, blood in the urine, or fever.
UTI is usually treated with antibiotics.
Choice D is wrong because raloxifene is not used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition that occurs when the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
Thyroid hormone regulates the body’s metabolism, growth, and development. Hypothyroidism can cause symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, dry skin, hair loss, or depression.
Hypothyroidism is usually treated with synthetic thyroid hormone replacement.
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