A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Bradycardia.
Red man syndrome.
Hypotension.
Hypoglycemia.
The Correct Answer is C
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
a.While weight changes can be concerning, they are not typically life-threatening and can occur as a common side effect of antidepressants, including citalopram. Monitoring is important, but it does not require immediate reporting.
b.This is the priority to report because confusion can indicate a serious reaction to the medication, such as serotonin syndrome, especially if it occurs in conjunction with other symptoms like agitation, hallucinations, or rapid heart rate. Confusion can also signal worsening mental status, which is critical for someone with major depression.
c.This refers to teeth grinding, which can occur with certain antidepressants. While it should be monitored and possibly addressed with interventions, it is generally not an immediate concern compared to confusion.
d.Sleep disturbances can be a side effect of citalopram and may need adjustment of treatment or recommendations for sleep hygiene, but they are not as urgent as confusion.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The client will need to have blood levels drawn to monitor the therapeutic and toxic levels of theophylline, a bronchodilator that is used to treat symptoms of asthma and other lung conditions. The normal range of theophylline in the blood is 10 to 20 mcg/mL.
Choice A is wrong because the client should not sprinkle the medication in applesauce or any other food. Theophylline is a sustained-release capsule that should be swallowed whole and not crushed or chewed.
Choice B is wrong because the client should avoid caffeine while on this medication, as it can increase the side effects of theophylline, such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and irregular heart rate.
Choice C is wrong because the client should not limit fluid intake while on this medication unless instructed by the doctor.
Fluid intake helps prevent dehydration and kidney problems that can affect theophylline levels in the blood.
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