A nurse is assessing a client after administering phenytoin IV bolus for a seizure. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication?
Bradycardia.
Red man syndrome.
Hypotension.
Hypoglycemia.
The Correct Answer is C
Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that can cause hypotension as an adverse effect when administered intravenously. The nurse should monitor the client’s blood pressure and heart rate during and after the infusion.
Choice A is wrong because phenytoin does not cause bradycardia. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate that can result from beta blockers, calcium channel blockers, or digoxin toxicity.
Choice B is wrong because red man syndrome is an adverse reaction to vancomycin, not phenytoin.
Red man syndrome is characterized by flushing, itching, and rash on the face, neck, and upper torso.
Choice D is wrong because phenytoin does not cause hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia is a low blood glucose level that can result from insulin overdose, excessive exercise, or inadequate food intake.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are 90/60 mm Hg to 120/80 mm Hg. Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Normal ranges for blood glucose are 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]
Explanation
Older adults are at higher risk of adverse drug reactions due to multiple health problems, polypharmacy, and decreased renal function.
These factors can affect the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of pain medications and increase the likelihood of drug interactions, overdosage, or toxicity.
Choice A is wrong because the decreased percentage of body fat does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, an increased percentage of body fat can alter the distribution and elimination of some drugs.
Choice C is wrong because an increased rate of absorption does not increase the risk of adverse drug reactions in older adults.
In fact, decreased rate of absorption can occur due to reduced gastric motility and blood flow.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. It works by reducing the activity of certain nerve cells in the brain.
Choice A is wrong because beclomethasone is a corticosteroid that is used to treat asthma and allergic rhinitis. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
Choice B is correct because the estrogen-progestin combination is a hormonal contraceptive that is used to prevent pregnancy and regulate menstrual cycles. It interacts with carbamazepine because carbamazepine can increase the breakdown of estrogen and progestin in the body, making them less effective. The nurse should instruct the client to use an alternative or additional method of birth control while taking carbamazepine.
Choice C is wrong because diphenhydramine is an antihistamine that is used to treat allergies, motion sickness, and insomnia. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
Choice D is wrong because the nicotine transdermal system is a nicotine replacement therapy that is used to help people quit smoking. It does not interact with carbamazepine.
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