A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Decreased blood pressure.
Decreased nausea.
Increased respiratory rate.
Increased pain relief.
The Correct Answer is C
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Colesevelam is a bile acid sequestrant that lowers cholesterol by binding to bile acids in the intestine and preventing their reabsorption into the bloodstream. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic medication that has no effect on cholesterol levels.
Choice C. Colchicine is wrong because it is an anti-inflammatory drug that is used to treat gout and other inflammatory conditions, not high cholesterol.
Choice D. Cimetidine is wrong because it is a histamine H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), not high cholesterol.
Normal ranges for cholesterol levels vary depending on the type of cholesterol and the risk factors of the individual, but generally, total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL, LDL cholesterol should be less than 100 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol should be more than 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women, and triglycerides should be less than 150 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because fever is a common sign of an acute infusion reaction that can occur when receiving IV amphotericin B. An acute infusion reaction is caused by the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines from the fungal cell wall disruption by amphotericin B. It usually occurs within the first hour of infusion and can be prevented by administering pre-medications such as antipyretics, antihistamines, or corticosteroids.
Choice A. Pedal edema is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Pedal edema may indicate fluid overload, heart failure, or renal impairment, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
Choice C. Dry cough is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Dry cough may indicate an allergic reaction, pulmonary infection, or interstitial lung disease, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion. Choice D. Hyperglycemia is wrong because it is not a typical sign of an acute infusion reaction.
Hyperglycemia may indicate diabetes mellitus, steroid use, or stress response, which are not directly related to amphotericin B infusion.
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