A nurse is administering naloxone to a client who has developed an adverse reaction to morphine.
The nurse should identify which of the following findings is a therapeutic effect of naloxone?
Decreased blood pressure.
Decreased nausea.
Increased respiratory rate.
Increased pain relief.
The Correct Answer is C
A therapeutic effect of naloxone is the reversal of opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is one of the most dangerous complications of opioid overdose. Naloxone works by binding to opioid receptors, displacing opioids, and restoring normal respiratory drive. An increase in respiratory rate after administration indicates that naloxone is effective.
Choice A is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
In fact, naloxone can cause hypertension (high blood pressure) as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice B is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone. Nausea is a common side effect of morphine, but naloxone does not affect it directly.
Naloxone can actually cause nausea and vomiting as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.
Pain relief is a desired effect of morphine, but naloxone antagonizes it by blocking the opioid receptors.
Naloxone can cause pain and discomfort as a side effect due to opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Medication reconciliation is the process of creating the most accurate list possible of all medications a client is taking and comparing that list against the physician’s orders at every transition of care. A client who is transferred to a step-down unit is at risk of medication errors due to changes in the level of care and the prescribing providers. Therefore, medication reconciliation should be performed for this client to prevent adverse drug events.
Choice A is wrong because a referral for social services does not involve a change in the client’s medications or care setting.
Choice B is wrong because transport to radiology is a temporary and short-term movement that does not require medication reconciliation.
Choice D is wrong because a consultation for physical therapy does not affect the client’s medication regimen or orders.
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