A nurse is preparing to administer amphotericin B lipid complex via intermittent IV bolus to a client who has infective endocarditis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Discard the medication if it is yellow.
Use a gravity flow set.
Prime the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Administer the medication over 2 hr.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is d. Administer the medication over 2 hr.
Choice A reason: Discarding the medication if it is yellow is not necessary. The color of amphotericin B lipid complex does not indicate its effectiveness or safety.
Choice B reason: Using a gravity flow set is not specifically required for the administration of amphotericin B lipid complex. Gravity infusion can be used to administer fluids and drugs where the rate is not critical and serious adverse effects are not anticipated. However, the use of a gravity flow set is not specifically mentioned in the guidelines for administering amphotericin B lipid complex.
Choice C reason: Priming the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride is not recommended for amphotericin B lipid complex. This is because amphotericin B lipid complex is incompatible with saline solutions and should be diluted only with 5% dextrose injection. Priming the tubing is a common practice in IV therapy to remove air from the tubing before attaching it to the patient.
Choice D reason: Administering the medication over 2 hr is the correct action. Amphotericin B lipid complex is typically administered over a longer period, often 2-6 hours. This allows for a slow and steady delivery of the medication, which can help to minimize potential side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider because cefuroxime is a cephalosporin antibiotic that can cause serious or life-threatening allergic reactions in people who are allergic to penicillin. The nurse should not administer cefuroxime to this client until the provider is notified and an alternative antibiotic is prescribed.
Choice A is wrong because the client has a BUN level of 18 mg/dL, which is within the normal range of 7 to 20 mg/dL.
This does not indicate any renal impairment or adverse reaction to cefuroxime.
Choice B is wrong because the client reports a history of nausea with cefuroxime, which is a common side effect of this drug.
The nurse should instruct the client to take cefuroxime with food to reduce nausea, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Choice D is wrong because the client takes aspirin daily, which does not interact with cefuroxime.
The nurse should monitor the client for any signs of bleeding or bruising while taking aspirin, but this is not a priority to report to the provider.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client has a negative sputum culture. This indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen because a negative sputum culture means that the client is no longer infectious and has cleared the tuberculosis bacteria from their lungs.
Choice A is wrong because testing negative for HIV does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. HIV testing is not related to tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C is wrong because having a positive purified protein derivative test does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
A positive PPD test means that the client has been exposed to tuberculosis, but it does not indicate whether the client has an active or latent infection. Choice D is wrong because having liver function test results within the expected reference range does not indicate that the client is adhering to the medication regimen for tuberculosis.
Liver function tests are used to monitor for possible adverse effects of isoniazid and rifampin, which can cause hepatotoxicity, but they do not reflect the effectiveness of the treatment.
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