A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?
Increased pulse rate.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased temperature.
Decreased respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is A
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking beverages while sucking on a nicotine lozenge because this can interfere with the absorption of nicotine and reduce its effectiveness. Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice B is wrong because chewing nicotine gum for 10 minutes before spitting it out is too short.
The recommended duration is at least 30 minutes to allow enough nicotine to be released and absorbed through the lining of the mouth.
Choice C is wrong because changing the nicotine patch every other day is not frequent enough.
The patch should be changed daily and applied to a different skin site to prevent irritation and ensure a steady dose of nicotine.
Choice D is wrong because administering 2 sprays of nicotine nasal spray in each nostril with each dose is too much.
The recommended dose is one spray per nostril, up to five times per hour or 40 times per day.
Using too much nasal spray can cause side effects such as nasal irritation, sneezing, coughing, headache, or nausea.
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