A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV. The client has an aPTT of 90 seconds. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following changes in their vital signs?
Increased pulse rate.
Increased blood pressure.
Decreased temperature.
Decreased respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is A
An aPTT of 90 seconds is much higher than the normal range of 30-40 seconds, which means the blood takes longer to clot and the client is at risk of bleeding. An increased pulse rate is a sign of blood loss and shock.
Choice B is wrong because increased blood pressure is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypertension or stress.
Choice C is wrong because decreased temperature is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of hypothermia or infection.
Choice D is wrong because decreased respiratory rate is not a sign of bleeding, but rather a sign of respiratory depression or sedation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The air bubble should not be expelled from the syringe before administering enoxaparin. The air bubble is included to ensure that the entire dose is administered and to help prevent leakage of the medication into the subcutaneous tissue, which can reduce bruising.
Choice B rationale:
After administering enoxaparin, applying firm pressure (but not massaging) to the injection site helps minimize bruising and bleeding. It's important not to massage the site as this can increase the risk of bleeding.
Choice C rationale:
The needle should be inserted fully into the subcutaneous tissue at a 90-degree angle (or at a 45-degree angle if the client has little subcutaneous tissue). Inserting the needle halfway may result in improper administration.
Choice D rationale:
Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Administering it intramuscularly could increase the risk of bleeding and is not the appropriate route for this medication.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because fentanyl transmucosal is a fast-acting opioid that can be used for breakthrough pain in patients who are already receiving opioids for chronic pain. Breakthrough pain is a sudden and severe increase in pain that occurs despite the use of regular pain medication. Fentanyl transmucosal has a rapid onset of action (1-3 minutes) and a short duration of effect (1-2 hours), which makes it suitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice B. Lidocaine patch is wrong because lidocaine patch is a topical anesthetic that can be used for localized neuropathic pain, but not for acute or severe pain.
Choice C. Morphine tablet is wrong because morphine tablet is a long-acting opioid that can be used for chronic pain, but not for breakthrough pain. Morphine tablet has a slow onset of action (30-60 minutes) and a long duration of effect (3-4 hours), which makes it unsuitable for treating episodic pain.
Choice D. Naloxone IV is wrong because naloxone IV is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids, but not relieve pain.
Naloxone IV can cause
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